html xmlns=”http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml” xmlns:mml=”http://www.w3.org/1998/Math/MathML” xmlns:epub=”http://www.idpf.org/2007/ops”>
Question One
A 15-year-old with inattentive-type attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has a hard time staying focused on the task at hand, has trouble organizing her work, and relies heavily on her mother to follow through with her homework. Problem solving is one of the hardest tasks for her. Her difficulty with sustained attention could be related to aberrant activation in the:
A. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
B. Prefrontal motor cortex
C. Orbital frontal cortex
D. Supplementary motor cortex
The correct answer is A.
Choice | Peer answers |
---|---|
A. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex | 84% |
B. Prefrontal motor cortex | 11% |
C. Orbital frontal cortex | 5% |
D. Supplementary motor cortex | 0% |
A Correct. Sustained attention is hypothetically modulated by the cortico-striatal-thalamic-cortical loop involving the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC). Inefficient activation of the DLPFC can lead to problems following through or finishing tasks, disorganization, and trouble sustaining mental effort; the patient exhibits all of these symptoms. The dorsal anterior cingulate cortex is important in regulating selective attention, and is associated with behaviors such as losing things, being distracted, and making careless mistakes. This area is certainly also inefficient in this patient.
B Incorrect. The prefrontal motor cortex hypothetically modulates behaviors such as fidgeting, leaving one’s seat, running/climbing, having trouble being quiet.
C Incorrect. The orbital frontal cortex on the other hand regulates impulsivity, which includes symptoms such as talking excessively, blurting things out, and interrupting others.
References
Question Two
Which of the following is true regarding cortical brain development in children with ADHD compared to healthy controls?
A. The pattern (i.e., order) of cortical maturation is different
B. The timing of cortical maturation is different
C. The pattern and timing of cortical maturation are different
D. Neither the pattern nor the timing of cortical maturation are different
The correct answer is B.
Choice | Peer answers |
---|---|
A. The pattern (i.e., order) of cortical maturation is different | 7% |
B. The timing of cortical maturation is different | 42% |
C. The pattern and timing of cortical maturation are different | 47% |
D. Neither the pattern nor the timing of cortical maturation are different | 4% |
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, or ADHD, is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by inattentive, hyperactive, and/or impulsive symptoms. Some posit that ADHD results from a delay in brain maturation, while others believe that it reflects complete deviation from typical brain development. Neuroimaging has been used to evaluate cortical maturation in children with ADHD compared to typically developing controls, specifically by comparing the age of attaining peak cortical thickness in children with and without ADHD.
A Incorrect. Research shows that the pattern of cortical maturation is similar for children with and without ADHD. Specifically, the primary sensory and motor areas attain peak cortical thickness earlier in development than do high-order association areas such as the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
B Correct. There are differences in the timing of cortical maturation between children with and without ADHD that are apparent as early as age 7. That is, cortical maturation in children with ADHD seems to lag behind that of healthy children. In fact, the median age by which 50% of the cortical points achieve peak thickness is delayed by 3 years in children with ADHD. Delay is most prominent in the superior and dorsolateral prefrontal regions, which are particularly important for control of attention and planning.
Interestingly, there is one brain region in which children with ADHD achieve peak cortical thickness earlier than typically developing controls: the primary motor cortex.
C and D Incorrect.
Question Three
A clinician is considering treatment options for a 26-year-old man with ADHD who has a history of alcohol and marijuana abuse. Which of the following accurately explains the effects of different stimulant formulations on neuronal firing?
A. Pulsatile stimulation amplifies undesirable phasic dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE) firing, which can lead to euphoria and abuse
B. Immediate-release stimulants lead to tonic firing, which can lead to euphoria and abuse
C. Tonic firing is the result of rapid receptor occupancy and fast onset of action as seen with extended release formulations
D. Extended release stimulants result in phasic stimulation of NE and DA signals, but this does not lead to euphoria and abuse
The correct answer is A.
Choice | Peer answers |
---|---|
A. Pulsatile stimulation amplifies undesirable phasic DA and NE firing, which can lead to euphoria and abuse | 58% |
B. Immediate-release stimulants lead to tonic firing, which can lead to euphoria and abuse | 15% |
C. Tonic firing is the result of rapid receptor occupancy and fast onset of action as seen with extended release formulations | 1% |
D. Extended release stimulants result in phasic stimulation of NE and DA signals, but this does not lead to euphoria and abuse | 26% |
A Correct. Pulsatile delivery of stimulants can cause a frequent and rapid increase in NE and DA, and this amplifies phasic firing. Phasic firing is hypothetically associated with reward, feelings of euphoria, and abuse potential.
B Incorrect. Immediate-release stimulants rapidly increase DA and NE, thereby especially increasing phasic firing, not tonic firing. Therefore, immediate-release stimulants have a higher risk of abuse.
C and D Incorrect. Extended release formulations of stimulants lead to a gradual and sustained increase in NE and DA, thus enhancing tonic firing, which is hypothetically linked to the therapeutic effects of stimulants. They are amplifying tonic NE and DA signals, which are thought to be low in ADHD. The extended release formulations occupy the NE transporter in the prefrontal cortex with slow enough onset and for long enough to enhance tonic NE and DA signaling; however, they do not block DA transporters fast or long enough in the nucleus accumbens to increase phasic signaling, thus reducing abuse potential.
References
Question Four
Scarlet, a 25-year-old bartender, was diagnosed with ADHD at age 10. She has been on and off medication since then; first on immediate-release methylphenidate, then on the methylphenidate patch. She has experimented with illicit drugs during her late adolescence and is still a heavy drinker. After a few years of self-medication with alcohol and cigarettes, she is seeking medical attention again. You decide to put her on 80 mg/day of atomoxetine, one of the non-stimulant medications effective in ADHD. Why does atomoxetine lack abuse potential?
A. It decreases norepinephrine levels in the nucleus accumbens, but not in the prefrontal cortex
B. It increases dopamine levels in the prefrontal cortex but not in the nucleus accumbens
C. It modulates serotonin levels in the raphe nucleus
D. It increases dopamine in the striatum and anterior cingulate cortex
The correct answer is B.
Choice | Peer answers |
---|---|
A. It decreases norepinephrine levels in the nucleus accumbens, but not in the prefrontal cortex | 16% |
B. It increases dopamine levels in the prefrontal cortex but not in the nucleus accumbens | 74% |
C. It modulates serotonin levels in the raphe nucleus | 8% |
D. It increases dopamine in the striatum and anterior cingulate cortex | 2% |
Atomoxetine is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (NET inhibitor).
A Incorrect. In the nucleus accumbens there are only a few NE neurons and NE transporters. Inhibiting NET in the nucleus accumbens will not lead to an increase in NE or DA.
B Correct. The prefrontal cortex lacks high concentrations of DAT, so in this brain region, DA gets inactivated by NET. Therefore, inhibiting NET in the prefrontal cortex increases both DA and NE. As only a few NET exist in the nucleus accumbens, atomoxetine does not induce an increase in DA and NE in the nucleus accumbens, the reward center of the brain, thus atomoxetine does not have abuse potential.
C Incorrect. Atomoxetine does not modulate serotonin levels.
D Incorrect. The striatum and the anterior cingulate cortex are not brain areas involved in reward.
References
Question Five
Patrick, a 15-year-old high school student, has trouble finishing his math tests within the allotted time because he gets easily distracted. In his English literature class, his grades are poor because of careless spelling mistakes. His pediatrician suggests testing his selective attention using the ____________ to see if the ____________ is aberrantly activated on an fMRI*.
A. Stroop Task; orbital frontal cortex
B. N-back Test; prefrontal motor cortex
C. Stroop Task; anterior cingulate cortex
D. N-back Test; dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
*this is a hypothetical question, as imaging techniques, while important research tools, cannot, to this date, be used for diagnostic purposes

Stay updated, free articles. Join our Telegram channel

Full access? Get Clinical Tree


