Central Nervous System Infections
Questions
1. A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with 24 hours of headache, fever (39°C), vomiting, and a progressive decrease in the level of consciousness. Which of the following should be done first?
A. CBC
B. Head CT with CT perfusion
C. Initiate dexamethasone and empiric antimicrobial therapy
D. Lumbar puncture and spinal fluid analysis
E. Serum procalcitonin
View Answer
1. Answer C. (MN-64) The patient presents with a high degree of suspicion for acute bacterial meningitis. Begin dexamethasone and antimicrobial therapy while obtaining blood cultures, as these are time-critical empiric treatments. Then initiate the diagnostic workup for bacterial meningitis by proceeding to an urgent head CT, followed by lumbar puncture if the scan is negative.
2. Empiric antibacterial therapy for a 62-year-old with fever, headache, and a progressive decrease in the level of consciousness should include which of the following?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Vancomycin
D. Choices B and C
E. Choices A, B, and C
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2. Answer E. (MN-64) Add ampicillin to the combination of a third- or fourth-generation cephalosporin and vancomycin given the patient’s age, to cover for Listeria monocytogenes. In addition to antibiotics, acyclovir should be started to cover for herpes simplex encephalitis as this disease is in the differential diagnosis.
3. A 50 year-old woman with well-controlled diabetes and chronic sinusitis presents with subacute headache and low-grade fever. On examination she is in moderate discomfort, but her neurological examination is normal. MRI without and with contrast reveals a solitary anterior frontal mass lesion at the gray-white junction with central T2/FLAIR hyperintensity and restricted diffusion, T2/FLAIR hypointense and contrast-enhancing rim, and surrounding edema (Figure 9.3.1). After stereotactic aspiration, streptococci species are identified and she is treated with ceftriaxone and metronidazole with rapid clinical improvement. At 6 weeks into her antibiotic treatment, a repeat MRI is obtained.
Which imaging feature is most helpful in distinguishing brain abscess from tumor?
A. Central restricted diffusion
B. Central T2/FLAIR hyperintense signal
C. Location at gray-white junction
D. Rim of T2/FLAIR hypointense signal
E. Rim with contrast enhancement
View Answer
3. Answer A. (MN-65) Central restricted diffusion due to central purulent material is the most specific MRI feature to help distinguish bacterial abscess from the majority of brain tumors. Other features, including location at the gray-white junction, central T2/FLAIR hyperintense signal, and rim enhancement are not specific and may occur in abscess, tumor, demyelinating diseases, or subacute stroke. The specificity of T2/FLAIR hypointense signal in the rim of the lesion has not been studied.
4. Which of the following would most likely predispose to development of this brain abscess?
A. Diabetes
B. Endocarditis
C. Frontal sinusitis
D. Middle ear infection
E. Pulmonary arteriovenous malformation
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4. Answer C. (MN-65) The location in the frontal lobe and the solitary nature of the abscess make direct spread from frontal sinusitis the most likely source. Diabetes is a significant risk factor for epidural abscess but in the absence of sinus infection and if well-controlled at baseline is an uncommon isolated caused of brain abscess. Middle ear infection may extend into the adjacent temporal lobe or cerebellum to cause brain abscess. Endocarditis and pulmonary arteriovenous malformation may lead to hematogenous spread of bacteria (septic emboli), usually resulting in multiple brain abscesses in the distribution of the middle cerebral artery.
5. Which of the following MRI features is compatible with an adequate treatment response?
A. Increased size of T2/FLAIR hyperintense core
B. Increased size of the region of central restricted diffusion
C. New areas of T2/FLAIR hypertense lesions with postcontrast rim enhancement
D. New layered foci of restricted diffusion in the occipital horns
E. Persistent ring enhancement of the previously imaged lesion
View Answer
5. Answer E. (MN-65) Persistent enhancement of a brain abscess is common even with adequate treatment and should not be used in isolation to guide continuation of antibiotics if other clinical and radiographic features are reassuring. The size of the lesion should decrease, and the central restricted diffusion (corresponding to pus) should also decrease. Restricted diffusion in the ventricle may indicate ventriculitis, which is usually associated with worsening symptoms due to increased intracranial pressure. New areas of abscess formation should raise concern for additional septic emboli.
6. An otherwise healthy 20-year-old man develops right-sided headache and fever and has a witnessed generalized seizure. On examination, he is febrile to 38.6°C. He is sleepy but language is intact. He has a moderate left-sided hemiparesis. MRI reveals T2/FLAIR hyperintense signal with restricted diffusion in the right parietal convexity and left posterior parafalcine subdural spaces (see Figure 9.6.1).
What is the most likely predisposing factor for this infection?
View Answer
6. Answer E. (MN-65) Unlike other bacterial infections of the CNS, subdural empyema usually occurs in otherwise healthy patients. Paranasal sinusitis is the most common source of infection, with spread through venous sinuses to the subdural space. Diabetes and HIV may predispose to other CNS infections but are not specific risk factors for subdural empyema. Intravenous drug use and endocarditis are risk factors for multiple brain abscesses.
7. A 78-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with 2 days of new-onset pain in the middle of his back, followed by urinary incontinence and gait instability. On examination, he is in severe discomfort with mild bilateral hip flexor weakness and a lower thoracic sensory level. ESR and CRP are markedly elevated. Emergent MRI reveals a T2-hyperintense, contrast-enhancing lesion in the posterior epidural space at T5-6, with adjacent vertebral and soft tissue signal changes, consistent with spinal epidural abscess (see Figure 9.7.1). Which of the following is the most important factor in his prognosis?
A. Age
B. Antibiotic CNS penetration
C. Degree of alcohol intake
D. Timing of surgical intervention
E. Use of corticosteroids
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7. Answer D. (MN-65) The degree of neurological deficit prior to treatment remains the best predictor of outcome, so preventing further cord injury by emergent surgical intervention is essential. Age is a risk factor for both epidural abscess and worse outcome but is not modifiable. Alcohol dependence is a risk factor for epidural abscess but once infection occurs does not independently affect outcome. Corticosteroids, while beneficial in bacterial meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae, are not indicated in spinal epidural abscess but are sometimes used nonetheless. All recommended empiric antibiotic regimens include agents and dosing with adequate CNS penetration.
8. A 16-year-old girl from Arkansas presents with blanching erythematous lesions on her lower extremities, approximately 2 to 5 cm in diameter (Figure 9.8.1). She noticed it yesterday, after having fevers and nausea for the preceding 4 days. She went on a summertime hike 1 week ago and told her mother that she thinks she had a bad mosquito bite. The rash has since spread centripetally to all four extremities and is now starting to involve the trunk. On examination, she is awake and oriented but notably inattentive; her neurologic examination is normal except she has difficulty spelling backward or maintaining fixed gaze for prolonged periods of time and shows mild ataxia on finger-to-nose testing. Preliminary laboratory tests show normal thyroid studies, metabolic panel, negative beta-HCG screen, and mild leukocytosis. What is the best initial management?
A. Admit to inpatient care and initiate IV doxycycline
B. Initiate treatment with empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics, vancomycin, and piperacillin/tazobactam
C. Obtain urgent MRI brain with and without contrast
D. Send more specific workup including peripheral blood smear, transaminase levels, and CT abdomen and pelvis
E. Start treatment with chloramphenicol
View Answer
8. Answer A. (MN-66) This patient most likely has an early but rapidly worsening case of Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF). The possible mosquito bite was more likely a tick bite, which introduced Rickettsia rickettsii into her blood stream. The patient should be started immediately on empiric treatment with doxycycline, the first-line treatment for nonpregnant adults. Given the patient has early signs of encephalopathy, she should be admitted for close observation and is at high risk of further neurologic deterioration. An MRI brain may be useful but is not the first priority. Chloramphenicol may be used in the treatment of RMSF; however, it is second line and typically used when doxycycline is contraindicated. Elevated transaminase levels and organomegaly are more commonly seen in other rickettsial diseases, specifically ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis; these tests are typically normal in the early phases of RMSF. Vancomycin and piperacillin are not effective in the treatment of rickettsial disease.
9. The patient described above is started on empiric treatment but continues to have worsening confusion and somnolence. An MRI of the brain with contrast is obtained (Figure 9.9.1). What is the underlying pathology that results in this MRI image?
A. Cerebral hypermetabolism resulting in white matter–predominant hypoxic-ischemic lesions
B. Disease-induced hypercoagulability causing scattered embolic infarcts
C. Parenchymal infiltration and accumulation of the disease-causing organism near vascular beds
D. Scattered immune-mediated myelitis
E. Vasculitic changes resulting in infarcts in perivascular spaces
View Answer
9. Answer E. (MN-66) Rocky Mountain spotted fever in moderate to severe cases results in cerebral vasculitic changes and scattered infarction; on contrast-enhanced MRI this appears as punctate lesions on T2 and DWI sequences.
10. Which of the following zoonotic infections is transmitted via rodents as the nonhuman mammal vector?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bartonella henselae
C. Brucella
D. Coxiella
E. Leptospira
View Answer
10. Answer E. (MN-66) Leptospirosis most commonly causes a meningitis syndrome but can also manifest in the CNS as myelopathy, acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, encephalitis, or cranial polyneuropathy. It is caused by the obligatory aerobic spirochete Leptospira and is vectored via rodents, particularly rats. Vectors for the other organisms include sheep, cattle, and goats (for Coxiella, Brucellosis, and Bacillus anthracis); pigs (for Brucellosis); and cats (for Bartonella henselae).
11. A 14-year-old boy who lives on a farm presents with fever and a raised painful mass in his left axilla and has many cuts and scratches over both his arms. He plays with all of the animals that live on the farm and sometimes gets cuts when they scratch him and bruises from hard physical contact. Which of the following tests is the most sensitive and specific in confirming the presumptive diagnosis?
A. CT with contrast
B. ELISA testing for IgM antibodies
C. History and examination alone have the highest specificity for the causative etiology
D. Ultrasound
E. Urine and blood cultures on both antibiotic and fungal media
View Answer
11. Answer B. (MN-66) The patient very likely has Bartonella henselae infection, which causes cat scratch disease. A probable diagnosis can be made on history and examination alone; however, generally it should be confirmed with ELISA-based serologic testing, which is the most sensitive and specific routine confirmatory test.
12. A 32-year-old man has an acute onset of right-sided hemiparesis with associated headache and fevers. He is found to have dense right-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs. MRI displays diffusion restriction in the right medullary pyramid consistent with a stroke. The CSF profile is protein 115 mg/dL, glucose 55 mg/dL, and WBC 55 cells/mm3 (98% lymphocytes, 2% monocytes). CSF and blood cultures are negative. Transthoracic and transesophageal echocardiograms are negative for infective endocarditis. There is no evidence of vasculitis on CT angiogram of the head. He is positive for HIV-1 infection, and his CD4 T cell count is 350 cells/mm3. His serum TPPA (T. pallidum particle agglutination) is positive and serum RPR (rapid plasma reagin) is 1:128, serum HSV IgG is positive and IgM is negative. The CSF VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is negative. HSV PCR, cryptococcal antigen, and GeneXpert MTB/RIF PCR are negative. CSF EBV PCR is positive.
What is the most likely cause of the patient’s neurological presentation?
A. Cryptococcus meningitis
B. EBV meningoencephalitis
C. HSV encephalitis
D. Neurosyphilis
E. TB meningitis
View Answer

12. Answer D. (MN-67) The patient has a diagnosis of probable meningovascular neurosyphilis presenting with a stroke. Diagnostic criteria for neurosyphilis requires a serum positive treponemal and nontreponemal test and an elevated CSF protein or CSF WBC. CSF VDRL is a specific assay but carries a sensitivity of only 70%; therefore, a negative CSF VDRL does not rule out neurosyphilis if all other criteria are met. Untreated HIV-1 infection can cause a CSF pleocytosis, but a WBC >20 cells/mm3 should raise suspicion for a dual infection, including neurosyphilis, as neurosyphilis is 10 times more likely in HIV-1-infected patients. GeneXpert MTB/RIF PCR is a polymerase chain reaction test that can diagnose the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and rifampin resistance within 2 hours.
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