Epilepsy
Questions
1. A 30-year-old woman with no epilepsy risk factors and a negative family history presents with a first-time unprovoked seizure. What is the most appropriate counseling the patient should receive?
A. Antiseizure medications are only recommended if patients have three or more unprovoked seizures, due to significant side effects
B. Her lifetime risk of recurrent seizures is <10% and she should not be started on an antiseizure medication after a single unprovoked seizure
C. Immediate antiseizure medication therapy is likely to reduce the risk for a seizure recurrence in the 2 years subsequent to a first seizure but is unlikely to improve the prognosis for sustained seizure remission over the longer term (>3 years)
D. Immediate antiseizure medication therapy should be instituted to prevent the development of epilepsy
E. Both A and B are correct
View Answer
1. Answer C. (MN-60) Lifetime risk of recurrent seizures is not known for this particular patient at the time of first presentation. However, in prospective studies, recurrence rates at 2 years after first-time seizure vary between 25% and 51%, depending on many factors including if antiseizure medications are started. However, it is not established starting antiseizure medication after a single unprovoked seizure improves long-term prognosis. In general, if a patient has two seizures then medications should be started as the risk of recurrent events is high.
2. A 29-year-old man with developmental delay has multiple seizure types. One of his seizure types is described as 30- to 50-second episodes of staring and behavioral arrest with gradual onset, with associated eyelid twitching. His MRI brain is unremarkable, and EEG shows generalized slow spike and waves complexes (2-2.5 Hz in frequency) during the episode. His seizures are best classified as which of the following?
A. Atypical absence seizure
B. Complex partial seizure
C. Generalized seizure with motor onset
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Typical absence seizure
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2. Answer A. (MN-60) “Typical” absence seizures usually and have rapid onset and offset of behavioral arrest and last less than 20 seconds. “Atypical” absence seizures have a similar EEG pattern; however, they have clinical features including protracted onset, longer duration, and concomitant abnormal motor movements or loss of motor tone; they are usually seen in the broader context of a neurodevelopmental disorder. The other seizure types listed generally do not have a characteristic slow spike-and-wave EEG pattern.
3. Which of the following EEG patterns has a high specificity for temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE)?
A. K-complexes
B. Rhythmic midtemporal theta with drowsiness
C. Small sharp interictal spikes
D. Temporal intermittent rhythmic delta activity
E. Wicket spikes
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3. Answer D. (MN-60) Temporal intermittent rhythmic delta activity (TIRDA) is a pattern commonly associated with TLE. Lateralized interictal sharp and spike waves, as well as focal slowing, are often seen in TLE; however, they are not particularly specific. Wicket spikes are benign EEG variants localized to the temporal lobe that are not clearly associated with epilepsy. Rhythmic midtemporal theta of drowsiness is a normal EEG variant seen in some healthy adults, and K-complexes are seen in healthy adults during stage 2 sleep.
4. A 7-year-old boy with no past medical history is experiencing episodes of facial twitching, speech arrest, drooling, and paresthesias over his lips and tongue. His MRI brain is normal. Developmental history was also intact. What is the most likely finding on his EEG?
A. 3-Hz spike and wave
B. Centrotemporal spikes
C. Generalized paroxysmal fast activity
D. Normal awake EEG
E. Occipital spikes
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4. Answer B. (MN-60) This patient has a specific self-limited focal epilepsy syndrome: benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes, also known as benign Rolandic epilepsy; the description above has many of the characteristic clinical features, and the EEG pattern in this condition shows centrotemporal spikes on EEG.
5. A 25-year-old woman presents with episodes since age 12 years of zoning out, loss of awareness, and inability to speak or comprehend speech during or immediately after these episodes. Her MRI is nonlesional, and EEG is shown in Figure 8.5.1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Complex migraines
B. Generalized epilepsy
C. Left temporal lobe epilepsy
D. Right frontal lobe epilepsy
E. West syndrome
View Answer
5. Answer B. (MN-60) The EEG shows generalized frontally predominant 3- to 4-Hz spike and wave discharges consistent with a generalized epilepsy syndrome. West syndrome is a childhood epilepsy syndrome that begins in the infantile period. Temporal lobe epilepsy will show focal or lateralized EEG patterns and generally have a lesion visible on MRI.
6. Approximately what percentage of patients with epilepsy are completely controlled with medication?
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 60%
D. 90%
E. 99%
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6. Answer C. (MN-61) Prospective studies of patients with newly diagnosed epilepsy show that, when an appropriate drug is prescribed, about 50% will become seizure free on the first agent (assuming tolerability). If the first drug fails, an additional 10% will become seizure free. However, 30% to 40% of patients will remain refractory to subsequent medication trials.
7. At clinically relevant doses, which drug commonly exhibits zero-order kinetics resulting in large changes in plasma concentration with relatively small changes in dose?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Gabapentin
C. Lamotrigine
D. Phenytoin
E. Valproic acid
View Answer
7. Answer D. (MN-61) This drug has the most complicated pharmacokinetics of all anticonvulsants. The zero-order kinetics are problematic as this usually occurs within the therapeutic range, thereby often resulting in high levels (with consequent toxicity) or low levels (with potential for breakthrough seizures) after small changes in dose (or absorption). All other drugs for epilepsy exhibit first-order kinetics within the therapeutic range, such that dose is directly proportional to plasma concentration. Phenytoin is also a strong inducer of hepatic enzymes, resulting in increased metabolism of many coadministered drugs. Phenytoin is also highly protein bound, such that the free (active) portion can be unexpectedly high in certain conditions, such as when other highly protein-bound drugs are coadministered (notably valproic acid), when serum albumin is low, or in severe renal failure.
8. Factors that can be considered in the choice of an anticonvulsant drug include which of the following?
A. Adverse-effect profile
B. Dosing frequency
C. Drug-drug interactions
D. Efficacy in other conditions
E. All of the above
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8. Answer E. (MN-61) When used at appropriate doses for the correct epilepsy syndrome, no drug is clearly known to be more effective than another at seizure control in a population of patients (although in individual patients responsiveness to specific drugs certainly occurs). For this reason, other properties of the anticonvulsant drug are used in choosing the most appropriate agent. In addition to the above properties, long-term safety may be a concern (thereby limiting the use of felbamate and phenytoin unless other options have failed). Speed of onset may be a factor particularly when seizures are frequent and debilitating; drugs such as lamotrigine and topiramate usually require several weeks of titration before reaching minimally effective doses, whereas levetiracetam, gabapentin, zonisamide, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, and eslicarbazepine can take effect very quickly.
9. Which of the following drugs for epilepsy does NOT interfere with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Levetiracetam
C. Phenytoin
D. Oxcarbazepine
E. Topiramate
View Answer
9. Answer B. (MN-61) Most drugs for epilepsy have some effect on the metabolism of oral contraceptives, resulting in decreased efficacy. Only levetiracetam, gabapentin, pregabalin, and valproic acid have no effect. Many drugs, including oxcarbazepine, clobazam, and topiramate have less effect due to weaker enzyme induction; however, care must be taken especially at higher anticonvulsant doses.
10. A 31-year-old man has had refractory seizures since age 17 years, consisting of a feeling of intense déjà vu followed by staring, drooling, and confusion. He has failed carbamazepine, lamotrigine, levetiracetam, phenytoin, and lacosamide at maximally tolerated doses. Workup showed seizures beginning in the right temporal lobe by video-EEG and a benign lesion (cavernous angioma) by MRI in the same area. The treatment most likely to result in complete seizure freedom is which of the following?
A. A trial of pregabalin
B. A vagus nerve stimulator
C. Implantation of a deep brain stimulator in the anterior nucleus of the thalamus
D. Medical marijuana
E. Surgical resection of the epileptogenic lesion
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