For questions 1 to 4, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

B. lateral lemniscus

C. medial lemniscus

D. medial longitudinal fasciculus

1. connection of posterior columns to thalamus

2. carries fibers involved with eye movements and has vestibular input

3. a part of the auditory pathway

4. connects the periventricular hypothalamus and mammillary bodies to the midbrainapos;s central gray matter

5. Stimulation of caudal regions of the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) produces

A. conjugate horizontal deviation of the eyes to the opposite side

B. conjugate horizontal deviation of the eyes to the same side

D. deviation of only the contralateral eye to the same side

E. deviation of only the ipsilateral eye to the opposite side

F. deviation of only the ipsilateral eye to the same side

For questions 6 to 9, match the description with the eye movements.

A. conjugate horizontal deviation to the opposite side

B. conjugate horizontal deviation to the same side

C. vertical eye movements

D. none of the above

6. stimulation of the caudal PPRF

8. stimulation of the superior colliculus

9. stimulation of the middle frontal gyrus

10. Which of the following is true of the occipital eye field?

A. It is localized to a relatively small area.

B. It subserves pursuit eye movements that are largely voluntary.

C. Lesions in this area are associated with transient deviation of the eyes away from the side of the lesion.

D. The threshold for excitation in this area is lower than in the frontal eye fields.

E. With lesions in this area, the patient can direct the eyes to a particular location on command.

11. The intracranial dura is innervated by

I.   cranial nerve V

II.  upper cervical spinal nerves

III. cranial nerve X

IV. cranial nerve VII

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

12. Descending fibers of the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) arise from all of the following structures except the

A. inferior colliculus

B. Cajalapos;s intersitial nucleus

C. medial vestibular nucleus

D. pontine reticular formation

E. superior colliculus

13. Which structure does not pass through the orbital tendinous ring (Zinnapos;s anulus)?

A. frontal nerve

B. superior division of III

C. abducens nerve

D. nasociliary nerve

E. inferior division of III

A. motor deficits in the adductor pollicis

B. motor deficits in the deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis

C. motor deficits in the third and fourth lumbricals

D. sensory deficits in the dorsum of the hand

E. sensory deficits in the palmar surface of the hypothenar eminence

15. The thalamus is fed by (the)

I.   medial posterior choroidal artery

II.  anterior choroidal artery

III. basilar artery branches

IV. middle cerebral artery branches

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

16. The anterior choroidal artery supplies portions of each of the following structures except the

A. amygdale

B. globus pallidus

C. hippocampus

D. hypothalamus

E. internal capsule

For questions 17 to 21, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. central tegmental tract

B. lamina terminalis

C. medial forebrain bundle

D. stria medullaris

E. stria terminalis

17. connects the amygdala to the hypothalamus

18. the closed rostral end of the neural tube

19. connects the gustatory brainstem nucleus to the thalamus

20. connects the septal area, hypothalamus, olfactory area, and anterior thalamus to the habenula

21. connects the septal area, hypothalamus, olfactory area, and hippocampus to the midbrain, pons, and medulla

A. are somatopically arranged in the thalamus with the head represented laterally and caudal body parts medially

B. influence activity of motor neurons in the contralateral cerebral cortex

C. leave the cerebellum via the middle cerebellar peduncle

D. mainly terminate in the red nucleus

E. project to the ipsilateral ventral lateral thalamic nuclei

23. The pulvinar has well-defined projections to the

I.   occipital cortex

II.  parietal cortex

III. temporal cortex

IV. frontal cortex

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

24. Each of the following is true of the fornix except

A. It is the main efferent fiber system of the hippocampus.

B. Postcommissural fibers of the fornix project to the mammillary bodies.

C. The columns of the fornix lie anterior to the anterior commmissure.

D. The body of the fornix runs to the rostral margin of the thalamus.

E. The fornical commissure (psalterium) is rostral to the anterior commissure.

25. The efferent projections of the arcuate nucleus are most closely associated with the

A. mammillary bodies

B. median eminence

C. nucleus of the diagonal band

D. posterior hypophysis

E. supraoptic nucleus

26. Regions of the striate cortex that do not contain ocular dominance columns are those representing the

I.   fovea

II.  blind spot of the retina

III. macula

IV. monocular temporal crescent of the visual field

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

A. Some of the neurons project directly to the spinal cord.

B. The body is somatopically represented.

C. The neurons in this area exhibit movement-related activity only if the motor task is performed with the contralateral limbs.

D. The threshold for stimulation is higher than for the primary motor cortex (MI).

E. Unilateral ablations produce no permanent deficit in the maintenance of posture or capacity for movement.

28. Each is true of dorsolateral fibers entering the dorsolateral spinal cord except

A. Root fibers of spinal ganglia separate into a medial and lateral bundle.

B. The central processes of each dorsal root ganglion divide into both ascending and descending branches.

C. The lateral bundle conveys impulses from free nerve endings.

D. The medial bundle consists of thinly myelinated or unmyelinated fibers, whereas the lateral bundle is thickly myelinated.

E. The medial bundle conveys impulses from Golgi tendon organs.

29. Which of the following does the ulnar nerve innervate?

I.   pronator quadratus

II.  flexor pollicis longus

III. opponens pollicis

IV. adductor pollicis

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

For questions 30 to 40, match the thalamic nucleus with the cortical area(s) to which it projects. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. areas 1, 2, 3

B. area 4

C. striatum

D. areas 5, 7

E. area 17

F. areas 18, 19

G. areas 41, 42

H. cingulate gyrus

I. prefrontal cortex

30. anterior nuclear group

31. lateral dorsal nucleus

32. lateral geniculate nucleus

33. lateral posterior nucleus

35. mediodorsal nucleus

36. pulvinar

37. centromedian nucleus

38. ventral lateral nucleus

39. ventral posterolateral nucleus

40. ventral posteromedial nucleus

For questions 41 to 43, match the description with the structure.

A. supraopticohypophysial tract

B. tuberoinfundibular tract

C. both

D. neither

41. Efferent fibers project to the neurohypophysis.

42. Efferent fibers project to the anterior pituitary.

43. Efferent fibers project to the hypophyseal portal vessels

For questions 44 to 49, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. ansa lenticularis

B. fasciculus retroflexus

C. lenticular fasciculus (FF H2)

D. postcommissural fornix

E. precommissural fornix

F. thalamic fasciculus (FF H1)

44. connects the globus pallidus interna to the thalamus (travels around the internal capsule)

45. connects the globus pallidus interna to the thalamus (travels through the internal capsule)

46. combination of the ansa lenticularis, lenticular fasciculus, and cerebellothalamic tract

47. connects the habenula to the midbrain and interpeduncular nuclei

48. connects the hippocampus to the septal nuclei

49. connects the hippocampus to the hypothalamus, mammillary bodies, anterior thalamus, septal nuclei, and cingulate gyrus

A. accessory cuneate nucleus

B. dorsal nucleus of X

C. nucleus ambiguous

D. nucleus of the solitary tract

E. superior vestibular nucleus

51. Which of the following fiber tracts is not a part of the limbic system?

A. diagonal band of Broca

B. fornix

C. mammillothalamic tract

D. medial forebrain bundle

E. thalamic fasciculus

52. The secondary somatic sensory area (SII) is located on the

A. medial surface of the superior frontal gyrus

B. medial surface of the superior parietal lobule

C. superior bank of the lateral sulcus

D. ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus

E. same area as the primary somatic sensory area

53. Which of the following is not seen with a lesion of the facial nerve immediately distal to the geniculate ganglion?

A. hyperacusis

B. impairment of lacrimation

C. impairment of salivary secretions

D. loss of taste in the anterior two thirds of the tongue

E. paralysis of ipsilateral facial muscles

54. The external urethral sphincter is innervated by

A. parasympathetic pelvic nerves

B. somatic pudendal nerves

C. sympathetic hypogastric nerves

D. A and B

E. B and C

55. Regions of the brain devoid of a bloodndash;brain barrier (circumventricular organs) include each of the following except

A. indusium griseum

B. median eminence

C. organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis

D. pineal gland

E. subfornicat organ

A. 1, 3, and 5

B. 1, 4, and 6

C. 2, 3, and 5

D. 2, 4, and 6

E. 2, 5, and 6

57. Substances can cross the bloodndash;brain barrier via

I.   active transport

II.  carrier-mediated transport

III. diffusion

IV. vesicular transport

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

For questions 58 to 61, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. arcuate fasciculus

B. diagonal band of Broca

C. tapetum

D. uncinate fasciculus

58. connects septal nuclei to the amygdale

59. connects Wernickeapos;s area to Brocaapos;s area

60. connects temporal and occipital lobes

61. connects the temporal lobe to the frontal lobe

For questions 62 to 67, match the description with the structure.

A. paraventricular nucleus

B. supraoptic nucleus

C. both

D. neither

62. located in the supraoptic region

63. located in the tuberal region

64. consists of several distinct cell groups

65. composed mainly of uniformly large cells

67. Regions of this nucleus give rise to descending axons projecting to the brainstem and all levels of the spinal cord.

68. Each of the following is true of corticobulbar fibers except

A. Fibers projecting to the posterior column nuclei leave the pyramids and enter these nuclei via the medial lemniscus or reticular formation.

B. Fibers projecting to trigeminal sensory nuclei and the nucleus solitarius are derived predominantly from frontoparietal cortical areas.

C. Pseudobulbar palsy can result from unilateral lesions involving corticobulbar fibers.

D. The supranuclear innervation of motor cranial nerve nuclei is largely bilateral.

E. Unilateral lesions involving corticobulbar fibers produce paralysis of contralateral lower facial muscles only.

69. The palmar interosseus muscles

A. abduct the fingers

B. adduct the fingers

C. extend the metacarpophalangeal joints and flex the interphalangeal joints

D. flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joints

E. perform none of the above

70. The sciatic nerve supplies each of the following muscles in part or in whole except the

A. adductor magnus

B. biceps femoris (short head)

C. gluteus maximus

D. semimembranous

E. semitendinous

71. The syndrome of posteroinferior cerebellar artery (PICA) occlusion consists of each of the following except

A. contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the body

B. contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the face

C. ipsilateral paralysis of the pharynx and larynx

D. ipsilateral Hornerapos;s syndrome

E. persistent hiccup

For questions 72 to 77, match the region of the internal capsule with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. anterior limb of the internal capsule

B. genu of the internal capsule

C. posterior limb of the internal capsule

D. none of the above

72. location of the corticobulbar fibers

74. location of anterior thalamic radiation

75. location of superior thalamic radiation

76. location of frontopontine fibers

77. location of corticofugal fibers

For questions 78 to 85, match the following ganglia with the description. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. ciliary ganglion

B. gasserian ganglion

C. geniculate ganglion

D. otic ganglion

E. Scarpaapos;s ganglion

F. sphenopalatine ganglion

G. spiral ganglion

H. submandibular ganglion

78. auditory system

79. vestibular system

80. parotid gland

81. parasympathetic to eye

82. majority of facial sensation

83. taste

84. lacrimation

85. salivation (nonparotid)

86. Each of the following characterizes a pathway involved in the pupillary light reflex except

A. Crossed and uncrossed fibers of the optic tract terminate on the lateral geniculate body.

B. Efferent fibers from the pretectal olivary nucleus cross in the posterior commissure and end in visceral cell columns of the oculomotor nerve complex.

C. Efferent fibers from the pretectal olivary nucleus cross ventral to the cerebral aqueduct and end in the visceral cell columns of the oculomotor complex.

D. Postganglionic fibers from the ciliary ganglion project to the sphincter of the iris.

E. Preganglionic fibers from the nuclei of the oculomotor complex travel with fibers of the third nerve and synapse in the ciliary ganglion.

I.   in the caudal aspect of the roof (inferior medullary velum)

II.  in the cranial aspect of the roof (superior medullary velum)

III. in the lateral recess (of Luschka)

IV. on the floor

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

88. The median nerve innervates each of the following muscles except the

A. adductor pollicis

B. flexor carpi radialis

C. opponens pollicis

D. palmaris longus

E. pronator teres

89. Afferent sources of fiber pathways to the septal nuclei include the

I.   amygdale

II.  hypothalamus

III. hippocampus

IV. basal ganglia

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

90. The anterior choroidal artery supplies parts of the

I.   caudate nucleus

II.  optic tract

III. thalamus

IV. anterior limb of the internal capsule

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

91. A lesion affecting the left optic tract will be manifested by a deficit in the

A. nasal half of the visual field of both eyes

B. nasal half of the right visual field and temporal half of the left visual field

C. no deficit unless the right optic tract was also affected

D. temporal half of the visual field of both eyes

E. temporal half of the right visual field and nasal half of the left visual field

A. cerebral cortex to globus pallidus

B. cerebral cortex to putamen

C. substantia nigra to caudate nucleus

D. subthalamic nucleus to globus pallidus

E. thalamus to caudate nucleus

93. Most of the fibers of the stria terminalis originate from the

A. amygdale

B. anterior hypothalamus

C. arcuate nucleus

D. habenula

E. septal nuclei

For questions 94 to 96, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. trapezoid body

B. Probstapos;s commissure

C. inferior collicular commissure

94. connects inferior colliculi

95. connects nuclei of lateral lemniscus

96. connects ventral cochlear nucleus to superior olive

For questions 97 to 103, match the region of the hypothalamus with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. anterior hypothalamus

B. lateral hypothalamus

C. posterior hypothalamus

D. ventromedial hypothalamus

97. Bilateral lesions here produce hyperphagia.

98. Bilateral lesions here produce poikilothermia.

99. Tumors in this region can result in hyperthermia.

100. Together with the lateral region, this area controls sympathetic responses.

101. Lesions here produce emotional lethargy and sleepiness.

102. the feeding center

103. Together with the medial region, this area controls parasympathetic responses.

A. nodose ganglion

B. jugular ganglion

C. petrosal ganglion

D. superior ganglion of CN IX

104. ear sensation to CN IX

105. ear sensation to CN X

106. carotid sinus and body input

107. visceral input to CN X

108. The telencephalon gives rise to each of the following except the

A. amygdale

B. caudate

C. claustrum

D. globus pallidus

E. putamen

109. Weakness of the coracobrachialis muscle results from impairment of the

A. axillary nerve

B. dorsal scapular nerve

C. median nerve

D. musculocutaneous nerve

E. suprascapular nerve

110. Cells that give rise to commissural fibers that interconnect homologous cortical areas via the corpus callosum are found in layer

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV

E. V

111. Neural crest derivatives include all of the following except the

A. adrenal medulla

B. dorsal root ganglion of cranial and spinal nerves

C. neurons of the cerebral cortex

D. pigmented layers of the retina

E. sympathetic ganglia of the autonomic nervous system

A. mesencephalon to rhomboencephalon to medulla

B. prosencephalon to diencephalon to midbrain

C. prosencephalon to telencephalon to thalami

D. rhomboencephalon to metencephalon to cerebellum

E. rhomboencephalon to myelencephalon to pons

113. Major striatal efferent projections include

A. amygdala and globus pallidus

B. globus pallidus and substantia nigra

C. substantia nigra and amygdale

D. substantia nigra and thalamus

E. thalamus and globus pallidus

114. Fibers from the nucleus ambiguus make contribution to

I.   cranial nerve IX

II.  cranial nerve XI

III. cranial nerve X

IV. cranial nerve VII

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

115. Functional components of the facial and intermediate nerves include

I.   general somatic afferent fibers

II.  general visceral afferent fibers

III. special visceral afferent fibers

IV. special visceral efferent fibers

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

116. The infundibular recess of the third ventricle is located

A. dorsal to the mammillary bodies

B. dorsal to the habenula

C. lateral to the infundibulum

D. ventral to the infundibulum

E. ventral to the mammillary bodies

A. bilateral complete deafness

B. bilateral partial deafness, greater in the contralateral ear

C. bilateral partial deafness, greater in the ipsilateral ear

D. unilateral, contralateral deafness

E. unilateral, ipsilateral deafness

118. The superior orbital fissure is traversed by which combination of cranial nerves?

A. III, IV, and VI only

B. III, IV, VI, and V₁ only

C. III, IV, VI, V₁, and V₂ only

D. II, III, IV, VI, V₁, and V₂ only

E. II, III, IV, VI, and V₁ only

For questions 119 to 123, match the nerve with the foramen or fissure it traverses. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. inferior orbital fissure

B. foramen magnum

C. foramen ovale

D. superior orbital fissure

E. none of the above

119. nasociliary nerve

120. lacrimal nerve

121. maxillary nerve

122. mandibular nerve

123. spinal accessory nerve

For questions 124 to 126, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. pudendal nerve

B. splanchnic nerve

C. nervi erigentes

124. parasympathetic

125. sympathetic

126. somatic

A. cochlear nucleus

B. inferior colliculus

C. lateral lemniscus

D. medial geniculate

E. superior olivary nucleus

127. Fibers arising here are grouped into three acoustic striae.

128. the most proximal source of tertiary auditory fibers

129. projects fibers into the lateral lemniscus

130. Fibers from this structure project bilaterally to stapedius motor neurons.

131. The fibers of the stria medullaris of the thalamus arise in the

I. anterior thalamic nuclei

II. lateral preoptic region

III. septal nuclei

IV. lateral habenular nucleus

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

132. Each of the following is true of striatal afferents except

A. Cells in the centromedian nucleus project to the caudate.

B. Corticostriate projections use glutamate as their transmitter.

C. Nigrostriatal fibers arise from cells in the pars compacta.

D. Serotonergic projections arise from the dorsal nucleus of the raphe.

E. Thalamostriate fibers arise largely from cells in the centromedian-parafascicular nucleus

For questions 133 to 139, match the trigeminal nucleus with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. mesencephalic nucleus

B. motor nucleus

C. principal sensory nucleus

D. spinal trigeminal nucleus

E. trigeminal ganglion

133. consists of a pars oralis, pars interpolaris, and pars caudalis

134. Lesions in this structure can result in a loss of pain and temperature sense.

136. Second-order neurons of the ventral trigeminothalamic tract are found in the principal sensory nucleus and here.

137. Second-order neurons of the dorsal trigeminothalamic tract are found here.

138. This nucleus and the motor nucleus are involved in the jaw jerk.

139. Cells here have large receptive fields and respond to a wide range of pressure stimuli.

140. Which is true of dentate nucleus projections?

A. They indirectly project to the ipsilateral cerebellar cortex.

B. They indirectly project to the ipsilateral primary motor cortex.

C. They leave the cerebellum via the middle cerebellar peduncle.

D. They project somatotopically on the ventral anterior thalamic nucleus.

E. They project to the ipsilateral red nucleus.

For questions 141 to 144, match the following nerves with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. superior gluteal nerve

B. inferior gluteal nerve

C. sciatic nerve

D. femoral nerve

141. adductor magnus

142. sartorius

143. tensor fascia lata

144. gluteus maximus

For questions 145 to 149, match the component of the brachial plexus with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. lateral cord

B. medial cord

C. posterior cord

D. radial nerve

E. ulnar nerve

145. The nerve that supplies the teres major originates here.

146. The medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm originates here.

147. The axillary nerve is a branch of this structure.

149. The middle and lower trunks both contribute to this structure.

150. Each of the following is true of fiber tracts leaving the cerebellum and terminating in the thalamus except

A. Fibers terminate on the ventral lateral and ventral posterolateral thalamic nuclei.

B. In the thalamus, the extremities are represented dorsally and the back ventrally.

C. In the thalamus, the head is represented medially and the caudal thorax laterally.

D. Some fibers project to the rostral interlaminar nuclei.

E. These fibers originate from both the dentate and the interposed nuclei.

151. All of the following subcortical nuclei are considered part of the limbic system except the

A. amygdale

B. centromedian nucleus of the thalamus

C. epithalamus

D. hypothalamus

E. septal nuclei

152. Central nervous system melanocytes are concentrated in the

A. choroid plexus

B. red nuclei

C. region of the amygdale

D. septum pellucidum

E. ventral medulla

153. A lesion in the medial lemniscus produces

A. contralateral loss of pain and temperature

B. contralateral loss of position and vibration

C. ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature

D. ipsilateral loss of position and vibration,

E. loss of pain and temperature bilaterally

154. Each of the following is considered a part of the diencephalon except the

A. fornix

B. hypothalamus

C. mammillary bodies

D. pineal gland

E. stria medullaris thalami

A. maxillary branch of CN V

B. nasopalatine nerve

C. mandibular branch of CN V

D. abducens nerve

E. mental nerve

F. middle meningeal artery

155. inferior orbital fissure

156. superior orbital fissure

157. foramen spinosum

158. foramen rotundum

159. foramen ovale

160. Dorelloapos;s canal

161. incisive foramen

162. mental foramen

For questions 163 to 170, match the vestibular nucleus with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. inferior vestibular nucleus

B. interstitial nucleus of the vestibular nerve

C. lateral vestibular nucleus

D. medial vestibular nucleus

E. superior vestibular nucleus

163. the largest of the vestibular nuclei

164. Cells of the superior vestibular ganglion, which innervate the utricular macule, project to this nucleus.

165. Cells of the inferior vestibular ganglion, which innervate the posterior part of the saccular macule, project to this nucleus.

166. gives rise to the vestibulospinal tract

167. Ascending fibers from this nucleus are predominantly crossed and project bilaterally to the extraocular nerve nuclei.

168. gives rise to the uncrossed ascending fibers in the medial longitudinal fasciculus projecting to the oculomotor and trochlear nuclei

169. Cells of this nucleus lie among fibers of the vestibular root.

For questions 171 to 175, match the trigeminal nucleus with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. mesencephalic nucleus

B. motor nucleus

C. principal sensory nucleus

D. spinal trigeminal nucleus

E. trigeminal ganglion

171. the most rostral of the nuclei

172. extends the most caudally

173. Afferent fibers of this nucleus convey pressure and kinesthetic sense from the teeth.

174. Central processes from the trigeminal ganglion cells ascend to this nucleus.

175. Central processes from the trigeminal ganglion cells descend to this nucleus.

176. The solitary tract is formed from fibers of cranial nerve(s)

I.   IX

II.  X

III. VII

IV. XII

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

177. A femoral nerve injury results in weakness of

A. hip extension

B. hip flexion

C. knee flexion

D. thigh abduction

E. thigh adduction

178. The pars tuberalis is a part of the

A. anterior lobe of the pituitary

B. diaphragma sellae

C. intermediate lobe of the pituitary

D. pituitary stalk

E. posterior lobe of the pituitary

A. cerebellar cortex

B. inferior olive

C. red nucleus

D. reticulotegmental nucleus

E. subthalamic nucleus

180. Fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle synapse in which of the following thalamic nuclei?

I.   ventral anterior

II.  ventral lateral

III. rostral interlaminar nuclei

IV. ventral posterolateral

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

181. The limbic lobe is composed of all the following except the

A. amygdale

B. cingulate gyrus

C. dentate gyrus

D. parahippocampal gyrus

E. subcallosal gyrus

182. The most significant contribution to the nasal septum is made by the

A. ethmoid and frontal bones

B. ethmoid and sphenoid bones

C. ethmoid and vomer bones

D. frontal and vomer bones

E. sphenoid and vomer bones

183. The posterior interosseus nerve innervates the

A. abductor pollicis brevis

B. abductor pollicis longus

C. adductor pollicis

D. flexor pollicis longus

E. opponens pollicis

184. The internal cerebral vein receives each of the following veins except the

A. choroidal vein

B. epithalamic vein

C. great cerebral vein of Galen

D. septal vein

E. thalamostriate vein

A. 17

B. 18

C. 19

D. 41

E. 42

186. The internal capsule is supplied by branches of the

I.   middle cerebral artery

II.  anterior cerebral artery

III. internal carotid artery

IV. posterior cerebral artery

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

For questions 187 to 191, match the association or commissural fiber bundle with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. anterior commissure

B. arcuate fasciculus

C. cingulate fasciculus

D. corpus callosum

E. uncinate fasciculus

187. Connects the orbital frontal gyri with anterior parts of the temporal lobe

188. connects the medial frontal and parietal lobes with the parahippocampal region

189. connects the superior and middle frontal gyri to the temporal lobe

190. The tapetum is derived from these fibers.

191. interconnects regions of the middle and inferior temporal gyri between hemispheres

For questions 192 to 194, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. restiform body

B. juxtarestiform body

C. brachium conjunctivum

D. brachium pontis

192. superior cerebellar peduncle

194. portion of the inferior cerebellar peduncle containing only afferent fibers from the inferior olive and pons

195. A discrete unilateral lesion of the abducens nucleus produces paralysis of movement of

A. both eyes away from the lesion

B. both eyes toward the lesion

C. the contralateral eye toward the lesion

D. the ipsilateral eye away from the lesion

E. the ipsilateral eye toward the lesion

196. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers destined for the lacrimal gland are derived from the

A. geniculate ganglion

B. otic ganglion

C. pterygopalatine ganglion

D. sublingual ganglion

E. submandibular ganglion

197. Fibers originating in the substantia nigra synapse on each of the following structures except the

A. caudate

B. globus pallidus

C. putamen

D. superior colliculus

E. thalamus

198. The bloodndash;brain barrier is formed by (the)

A. astrocytic foot processes

B. basement membrane

C. ependymal lining cells

D. microglia

E. tight junctions of the capillary endothelium

199. Which of the following ligaments is a continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A. anterior atlanto-occipital membrane

B. apical ligament

C. cruciate ligament

D. tectorial ligament

E. transverse ligament

A. 3%

B. 30%

C. 40%

D. 60%

E. 90%

200. Betz cells account for this proportion of the corticospinal fibers.

201. the approximate percentage of corticospinal fibers arising from area 4

202. the approximate percentage of corticospinal fibers arising from area 6

203. the approximate percentage of corticospinal fibers arising from the parietal lobe

204. the approximate percentage of corticospinal fibers that are poorly myelinated

205. The facial nerve innervates all of the following muscles except the

A. anterior belly of the digastric

B. uccinator

C. platysma

D. stapedius

E. stylohyoid

206. The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disk is formed from the

A. chondrification of the centrum of the vertebral body

B. myotome

C. notochord

D. primitive streak

E. sclerotome

207. The primary olfactory cortex is located in the

A. anterior perforated substance

B. entorhinal cortex

C. mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus

D. orbitofrontal cortex

E. pyriform cortex

208. Each of the following cell groups is derived from the alar plate except the

A. nucleus ambiguous

B. principal sensory nucleus of CN V

C. solitary nucleus

D. spinal trigeminal nucleus

E. vestibular nucleus

A. downgaze to the opposite side

B. downgaze to the same side

C. upgaze to the opposite side

D. upgaze to the same side

E. lateral gaze to the opposite side

For questions 210 and 211, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. superior olive

B. inferior olivary complex

C. both

D. neither

210. part of the auditory system

211. part of the cerebellar system

For questions 212 to 216, match the following structures with the description.

A. superior salivatory nucleus

B. inferior salivatory nucleus

C. both

D. neither

212. General visceral efferent fibers arise here.

213. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from this nucleus travel with the intermediate nerve.

214. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from this nucleus travel with the lesser petrosal nerve.

215. located in the reticular formation

216. Fibers originating here eventually divide into two groups that pass to the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglia, respectively.

For questions 217 and 218, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. parasympathetic

B. sympathetic

C. both

217. short ciliary nerves

218. long ciliary nerves

A. anterior spinothalamic tract

B. cuneocerebellar tract

C. dorsal spinocerebellar tract

D. lateral spinothalamic tract

E. ventral spinocerebellar tract

219. arises from the dorsal nucleus of Clarke

220. the upper limb equivalent of the dorsal spinocerebellar tract

221. transmits light touch

222. crossed; cells of origin receive input from group Ib afferents

223. crossed within one or two spinal segments; cells in laminae I, IV, and V give rise to most of the axons in this tract

224. enters the cerebellum via the superior cerebellar peduncle,

225. First-order neurons are found from L1 to S2.

For questions 226 to 230, match the descending spinal tract with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. corticospinal tract

B. reticulospinal tract

C. rubrospinal tract

D. tectospinal tract

E. vestibulospinal tract

226. The majority of fibers descend only to cervical levels.

227. Cells of origin reside in the pontine tegmentum and medulla.

228. divides into three tracts at the spinomedullary junction

229. associated with the control of tone in flexor muscle groups

230. associated with the control of tone in extensor muscle groups

For questions 231 to 240, match the peripheral nerve with the muscle it innervates. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. deep peroneal

B. sciatic

C. femoral

D. superficial peroneal

E. inferior gluteal

F. superior gluteal

G. obturator

H. tibial

231. adductor brevis

233. extensor hallucis longus

234. gluteus medius

235. gluteus maximus

236. gastrocnemius

237. iliopsoas

238. flexor digitorum longus

239. peroneus longus and brevis

240. quadriceps

241. Movement of molecules across the bloodndash;brain barrier involves

A. active transport requiring energy

B. carrier-mediated transport

C. both

D. neither

242. Which of the following most closely characterizes the tuberohypophysial tract?

A. arcuate nucleus to median eminence

B. arcuate nucleus to posterior hypophysis

C. dorsomedial nucleus to posterior hypophysis

D. supraoptic nucleus to median eminence

E. supraoptic nucleus to posterior hypophysis

For questions 243 to 250, match the following structures with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. apical ligament

B. alar ligaments

C. dentate ligaments

D. tectorial membrane

E. superior cruciate ligaments

F. inferior cruciate ligaments

G. anterior atlanto-occipital membrane

H. transverse ligament

243. dens to basion

244. dens to lateral foramen magnum

245. pia to dura

247. continuous with anterior longitudinal ligament

248. between C1 lateral masses

249. transverse ligament to basion

250. transverse ligament to axis