1. Which of the following is a risk factor for clinically evident neurologic complications in the first 24 hours after cerebral angiography?

I.   age over 70 years

II.  duration of angiogram over 90 minutes

III. history of transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke

IV. history of systemic hypertension

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

2. The most common nonneurologic complication of cerebral angiography via a femoral artery approach is

A. angina

B. allergic reaction

C. hematoma

D. myocardial infarction (MI)

E. pseudoaneurysm

I.   tentorial artery

II.  inferior hypophysial artery

III. dorsal meningeal artery

IV. superior hypophysial artery

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

For questions 4 to 6, match the persistent anastomoses with the description.Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. cervical intersegmental artery

B. proatlantal intersegmental artery

C. primitive hypoglossal artery

D. primitive otic artery

E. primitive trigeminal artery

4. the most common of the persistent anastomoses

5. petrous internal carotid artery to the basilar artery

6. proximal cavernous internal carotid artery to basilar artery

7. The precentral cerebellar vein usually drains into the

A. internal cerebral vein

B. lateral mesencephalic vein

C. posterior mesencephalic vein

D. straight sinus

E. vein of Galen

8. Anterior temporal lobe masses characteristically displace the

A. anterior choroidal artery laterally

B. anterior choroidal artery medially

C. anterior choroidal artery upward

D. posterior choroidal artery downward

E. posterior choroidal artery upward

A. isointense on T1, isointense to hyperintense on T2

B. hyperintense on T1 and T2

C. hypointense on T1 and T2

D. isointense on T1, hypointense on T2

E. hyperintense on T1, hypointense on T2

F. hypointense on T1, hyperintense on T2

9. oxyhemoglobin (0–24 hours)

10. deoxyhemoglobin (1–3 days)

11. intracellular methemoglobin (3–14 days)

12. extracellular methemoglobin (>2 weeks)

13. nonparamagnetic heme pigments

14. hemosiderin around periphery

For questions 15 to 23, match the branch of the internal carotid artery with the statement that best describes it.

A. caroticotympanic artery

B. inferior hypophysial trunk

C. inferolateral trunk

D. mandibulovidian artery

E. McConnell’s capsular vessels

F. tentorial artery

15. potential supply to vascular tumors of the middle ear

16. vestigial hyoid artery

17. common supply to juvenile angiofibromas

18. also called the artery of Bernasconi and Cassanari

19. Together with the inferior hypophysial artery, these vessels supply the pituitary gland.

20. Together with the caroticotympanic artery, it is a branch of the petrous internal carotid artery.

21. anastomoses with the superior hypophysial artery

22. remnant of the embryonic dorsal ophthalmic artery

23. provides important branches to some of the cranial nerves

A. cisternal segment, plexal point, plexal segment

B. cisternal segment, plexal segment, plexal point

C. plexal point, cisternal segment, plexal segment

D. plexal point, plexal segment, cisternal segment

E. plexal segment, plexal point, cisternal segment

25. In the most common anatomic variation, the named branches of the proximal right subclavian artery from proximal to distal are

A. internal mammary artery, thyrocervical trunk, vertebral artery, costocervical trunk

B. internal mammary artery, vertebral artery, thyrocervical trunk, costocervical trunk

C. vertebral artery, internal mammary artery, costocervical trunk, thyrocervical trunk

D. vertebral artery, internal mammary artery, thyrocervical trunk, costocervical trunk

E. vertebral artery, thyrocervical trunk, internal mammary artery, costocervical trunk

26. The most common site of origin of the recurrent artery of Heubner is the

A. A1 segment

B. A2 segment

C. internal carotid artery

D. M1 segment

E. M2 segment

27. Intracranial hypotension related to leakage or removal of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is most closely associated with which magnetic resonance finding?

A. diffuse dural enhancement

B. ependymal enhancement

C. pneumocephalus

D. slitlike ventricles

E. ventriculomegaly

28. Which of the following imaging characteristics is least likely for pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma?

A. calcification

B. cyst formation

C. multiple lesions

D. superficial location

E. temporal lobe location

A. fourth ventricle

B. left lateral ventricle

C. right lateral ventricle

D. third ventricle

30. Choroid plexus papillomas in adults occur most commonly in the

A. fourth ventricle

B. left lateral ventricle

C. right lateral ventricle

D. third ventricle

31. Which one of the following white matter lesions usually initially involves the parieto-occipital regions?

A. adrenoleukodystrophy

B. Canavan’s disease

C. metachromatic leukodystrophy

D. multiple sclerosis

E. Schilder’s disease

For questions 32 to 37, match the description with the malformation.

A. Chiari I malformation

B. Chiari II malformation

C. both

D. neither

32. caudal displacement of cerebellar tonsils

33. Beaking of the midbrain tectum is characteristic.

34. A meningomyelocoele is virtually always present.

35. Medullary kinking is seen.

36. Occipital or high cervical encephalocele is present.

37. usually presents in young adulthood

38. The term bovine archrefers to

A. bi-innominate arteries

B. left common carotid artery origin from the aortic arch

C. left common carotid artery origin from the right brachiocephalic trunk

D. right aortic arch

E. right subclavian artery distal to the left subclavian artery

I.   agenesis of the corpus callosum

II.  Leigh’s disease

III. periventricular leukomalacia

IV. Hallervorden-Spatz disease

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

40. 40.Schizencephaly is essentially a

A. demyelinating illness

B. disease that first develops in the elderly

C. disorder of neuronal migration

D. neurodegenerative disorder

E. psychiatric disorder

41. The differential diagnosis of optic nerve thickening includes

I.   optic nerve sheath meningioma

II.  orbital pseudotumor

III. optic nerve glioma

IV. Graves’ disease

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

42. The most common primary benign tumor of the adult orbit is (a)

A. cavernous hemangioma

B. dermoid cyst

C. lymphangioma

D. optic nerve glioma

E. sarcoidosis

43. Which of the following is a branch of the ophthalmic artery?

A. anterior ethmoidal artery

B. posterior ethmoidal artery

C. both

D. neither

A. a rim of enhancement in the recurrent disk, diffuse enhancement in the fibrosis

B. a rim of enhancement in the fibrosis, diffuse enhancement in the recurrent disk

C. a rim of enhancement in the recurrent disk, no enhancement in the fibrosis

D. diffuse enhancement in the recurrent disk, no enhancement in the fibrosis

E. no enhancement of either the recurrent disk or fibrosis

45. Lesions in diffuse axonal injury are commonly found in the

I.   corpus callosum

II.  gray-white junction

III. rostral brainstem

IV. temporal lobe

A. I, II, III

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. IV

E. all of the above

46. Acute subarachnoid hemorrhage is more difficult to diagnose on MRI than on computed tomography (CT) because

A. Extracellular methemoglobin is isointense on T1 and T2.

B. Hemosiderin is isointense on T1 and T2.

C. Most radiologists are not familiar with the appearance of acute subarachnoid hemorrhage on MRI.

D. The high oxygen tension in the subarachnoid space prevents conversion of oxyhemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin.

E. The low oxygen tension in the subarachnoid space prevents conversion of deoxyhemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin.

47. Which of the following is true of the choroidal blush?

A. It is an indicator of the choroidal plexus in the lateral ventricle.

B. It is best seen on the anteroposterior projection.

C. It is from the posterior ethmoidal branches of the ophthalmic artery.

D. Its configuration is usually a thin, dense crescent.

E. Its presence usually indicates an elevated intraocular pressure.

For questions 48 to 109, match the figure with the most appropriate response.