Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease

Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease

Vaso-occlusive Disease

1. True or False. A transient ischemic attack(TIA)is a focal neurological deficit lasting 24 hours but not more than 48 hours.

false(A TIA, by definition, lasts ≤ 24 hours.)

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2. Complete the following about transient ischemic attack (TIA):

 

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a. TIA is usually_____.

short

 

b. Most last only_____ _____.

10 minutes

 

c. 70% last only_____ _____.

10 minutes

 

d. 90% last less than_____ _____.

4 hours

 

e. If a deficit lasts more than 60 minutes, only_____% resolve in 24 hours.

14%

 

3. Complete the following about RIND:

 

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a. RIND stands for r_____i_____n_____d_____.

reversible ischemic neurologic deficit

 

b.

 

 

     i. It is defined as a n_____d_____

neurologic deficit

 

     ii. that lasts >_____hours but less than_____ _____.

24 hours; 1 week

 

     iii. Frequency of occurrence is_____%.

2.5%

 

4. With atherosclerotic cerebrovascular disease(CVA), atherosclerotic plaques

 

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a. begin to form as early as age_____

20

 

b. begin on the back wall of the_____ _____ _____

common carotid artery

 

c. risk of CVA correlates with

 

 

     i. s_____

stenosis

 

     ii. u_____

ulcerations

 

     iii. h_____

hypercoagulable

 

     iv. v_____

viscosity

 

5. True or False. Patients with a depressed level of consciousness or an acute fixed deficit should undergo emergency carotid endarterectomy.

false(These are two contraindications to emergency CEA.)

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Atherosclerotic Cerebrovascular Disease

6. Carotid artery lesions

 

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a. are considered symptomatic if

     i. there is _____ or _____ ischemic episodes

one or more

 

     ii. in the _____ of the vessel.

distribution

 

b. True or False. They are considered asymptomatic if the patient only has

 

     i. visual complaints

true

 

     ii. Dizziness

true

 

     iii. Syncope

true

 

7. In a patient with carotid plaque categorize the following:

 

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a. blurred vision

asymptomatic

 

b. aphasia for less than 24 hours

symptomatic

 

c. weakness of arm for 10 min

symptomatic

 

d. dizziness

asymptomatic

 

8. True or False. The stroke rate in a patient with asymptomatic carotid bruit is approximately

 

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a. 0%

false

 

b. 2%

true

 

c. 8%

false

 

d. 22%

false

 

9. True or False. The central retinal artery is often insufficient in cerebrovascular disease. This artery is a branch of the following:

 

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a. posterior cerebral artery

false

 

b. orbital artery

false

 

c. ophthalmic artery

true

 

d. M2

false

 

e. anterior communicating artery

false

 

10. Retinal insufficiency can manifest by

 

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a. temporary loss of vision, aka _____ _____

amaurosis fugax

 

b. True or False. Such loss of vision is

     i. bilateral

false

 

     ii. Contralateral

false

 

     iii. Ipsilateral

true

 

     iv. Homonymous

false

 

c. There are four types.

 

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     i. Type I is called “black curtain” due to _____.

emboli

 

     ii. Type III is called “gray vision” due to _____.

hypoperfusion

 

     iii. Type III is associated with migraines and the cause is _____.

Vasospastic

 

     iv. Type IV is associated with anti cardio lipin antibodies, and the cause is _____.

miscellaneous

 

     v. Blindness may be _____.

permanent

 

11. What are Hollenhorst plaques?

cholesterol crystal emboli seen on funduscopic examination in patients with carotid artery disease

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12. Complete the following about the classification of carotid ulcerations:

 

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a. Type A is s_____ s_____s_____.

small smooth shallow

 

b. Type B is l_____ d_____.

large deep

 

c. Type C is c_____ c_____.

complex cavitated

 

d. Annual stroke rate for type A is _____%.

0.5%

 

e. Annual stroke rate for type B is _____%.

0.4 to 4.5%

 

f. Annual stroke rate for type C is _____%.

5 to 7%

 

13. What is the gold standard for evaluation of carotid artery disease?

angiography

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14. In the arteriosclerotic patient what is the risk that angiography will cause a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

Less than 1% risk of CVA

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15. Complete the following about Nascet study:

 

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a. Nascet stands for _____.

North American Symptomatic Carotid Endarterectomy Trial

 

b. It measures degree of c_____s_____.

carotid stenosis

 

c. Formula is _____ =% stenosis

stenosis

d. where N is measured at maximal _____

narrowing

e.

     i. where D is measured _____

distal

     ii. to the _____ _____

carotid bulb

 

     iii. where the walls become _____

parallel

 

f. Surgery is not indicated for less than _____%.

40%

 

16. Complete the following about duplex Doppler ultrasound limitations:

 

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a. It can’t scan above the angle of the _____.

Mandible

 

b. It performs poorly with the _____ _____.

string sign

 

c. Depth of penetration is greater with _____ _____.

lower frequencies

 

d. Signal definition is better with _____ _____.

higher frequencies

 

17. True or False. Ultrasound of the carotid artery is excellent for evaluating patients with “the string sign.”

false (Ultrasound is very poor for evaluation of such low flow states.)

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18. The use of magnetic resonance angiography

 

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a. may demonstrate a flow _____

gap

 

b. which obviates the need for _____.

angiography

 

c. It may _____ the degree of carotid stenosis.

underestimate

 

19. True or False. The following irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase:

 

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a. ticlodipine

false

 

b. aspirin

true (Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase preventing synthesis of vascular prostacyclin and platelet thromboxane A2. Platelets cannot resynthesize cyclooxygenase, whereas the vascular tissues do so rapidly.)

 

c. clopidogrel

false

 

d. prednisone

false

 

20. Aspirin

 

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a. The optimal dose for cerebrovascular ischemia is _____.

debated

 

b.

     i. Risk of stroke after TIA can be reduced by _____to _____%

25 to 30%

 

     ii. by the use of _____ mg PO per day.

325

 

c. True or False. More mg of ASA is better after TIA.

false

 

d. Daily doses of 81 or 325 mgm were _____ than higher doses.

better

 

e. CVA, MI and death were reduced to _____% from _____%.

6.2 from 8.2

 

21. Complete the following about Plavix:

 

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a. Has a lower incidence of _____

neutropenia

 

b. Needs to be taken _____ per day

once

 

c. Requires _____ days off the drug to reverse

5

 

22. Complete the following about asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis:

 

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a. stroke rate of _____% per year

2%

 

b. percent that are not disabling is _____%

50%

 

c. Carotid endarterectomy may be beneficial for stenosis of more than _____%.

60%

 

23. True or False. The annual stroke rate for patients with symptomatic carotid stenosis is

 

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a. 30%

false

 

b. 5%

false

 

c. 1 to 3.4%

true

 

d. 1%

false

 

24. True or False. The Asymptomatic Carotid Atherosclerosis Study (ACAS) found that surgery is moderately beneficial for asymptomatic carotid stenosis ≥ 60%.

true

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Carotid Endarterectomy

25. True or False. The North American Symptomatic Carotid Endarterectomy Trial (NASCET) found that in patients with a recent TIA and ipsilateral stenosis > 70%, carotid endarterectomy (CEA) reduced the risk of CVA by

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a. 17%

true (at 18 months follow-up)

 

b. 80%

false

 

c. 60%

false

 

d. It did not reduce the risk.

false

 

26. The general trend in carotid endarterectomy surgery is to wait only _____ days after CVA to perform an endarterectomy.

7

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27. True or False. Aspirin and dipyridamole have been shown unequivocally to reduce the rate of restenosis after CEA.

false (The use of these medications has not been shown to reduce the rate of restenosis after CEA.)

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28. Complete the following about postop check after carotid endarterectomy:

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a. Pronator drift to rule out _____ _____ new hemiparesis

b. Dysphasia to rule out _____ _____ _____

dominant hemisphere CVA

 

c. Pupil size to rule out _____ _____

Horner syndrome

 

d. STA pulsations to rule out _____ _____ _____

external carotid occlusion

 

e. Tongue deviation to identify _____ _____ _____

XII nerve injury

 

f.

     i. Hoarseness consider _____ _____

laryngeal edema

 

     ii. Or _____ _____ nerve injury

recurrent laryngeal

 

g. Tracheal deviation to identify postop _____

hematoma

 

29. List postop complications of carotid endarterectomy.

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Hint: c-h4arm2s2

a. c_____

cranial nerve injury

 

b. h_____

headache

 

c. h_____

hoarseness

 

d. h_____

hyperperfusion

 

e. h_____

hypertension

 

f. a_____

arteriotomy disruption

 

g. r_____

restenosis

 

h. m_____

morbidity

 

i. m_____

mortality

 

j. s_____

seizures

 

k. s_____

stroke

 

30. Complete the following about carotid endarterectomy:

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a. Morbidity: absolute upper limit is _____%.

3%

 

b. Mortality in hospital is _____%.

1%

 

31. Complete the following about arteriotomy disruption:

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a. Most immediate danger is _____

asphyxiation

 

b. Symptoms and signs

     i. Swelling of _____

neck

 

     ii. Swallowing _____

difficulty

 

     iii. Deviation of _____

trachea

 

     iv. Air _____

hunger

 

     v. Late _____ _____

false aneurysm

 

32. Complete the following about stroke:

 

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a. Infarcation incidence: _____%

5%

 

b. Hemorrhagic incidence: _____%

0.6%

 

33. What is the most common cause of

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a. minor post-CEA CVA?

emboli

 

b. major post-CEA CVA?

postoperative ICA occlusion

 

34. Risk of stroke is related to

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a. t_____

technique

 

b. h_____

state hypercoaguable

 

c. h_____ reaction

heparin

 

d. Endarterectomy site is t_____

thrombogenic

 

35. Complete the following about seizures:

 

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a. Most occur postop day _____ to _____

5 to 13

 

b. Usually _____

focal

 

c. Incidence _____%

1%

 

36. Complete the following about restenosis after CEA surgery:

 

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a. within 2 years is usually due to _____ _____

fibrous hyperplasia

 

b. after 2 years is usually due to _____

atherosclerosis

 

37. Complete the following about late restenosis:

 

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a. It occurs within the first year in _____%.

25%

 

b. If it occurs within 2 years, it is due to f_____ h_____.

fibrous hyperplasia

 

c. If it occurs after 2 years, it is due to a _____.

atherosclerosis

 

38. Complete the following about cerebral hyperperfusion syndrome:

 

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a. Due to return of blood to area of lost _____

autoregulation

 

b. Usually from chronic cerebral _____

ischemia

 

c. Secondary to high-grade _____

stenosis

 

d. May result in _____ _____

intracerebral hemorrhage

 

39. True or false. Hoarseness is most likely caused by

 

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a. superior laryngeal nerve injury

false

 

b. laryngeal edema

true

 

c. recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

false

 

40. Complete the following about hypoglossal nerve injury:

 

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a. Incidence is _____%.

1%

 

b. Tongue deviates _____ _____ _____ of the injury.

toward the side

 

c. Unilateral injury causes problem with

     i. sp_____

speaking

 

     ii. sw_____

swallowing

 

     iii. c_____

chewing

 

d. Bilateral injury can cause a_____ o_____.

airway obstruction

 

e. It may last as long as _____ months.

4 months

 

f. Palsy is a contraindication to doing endarterectomy.

Contralaterally

 

41. Complete the following about endarterectomy and vocal cord paralysis:

 

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a. Incidence is _____%.

1%

 

b. Which side would be affected?

Ipsilateral

 

c. Due to injury to

 

 

     i. v_____ nerve

vagus

 

     ii. r_____ l_____ nerve

recurrent laryngeal

 

42. Damage to which nerve could cause postoperative lip asymmetry following CEA? (i.e., not due to stroke)

marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve MMB-VII (usually a retraction injury with the nerve being retracted against the mandible)

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43. Complete the following about hypertension:

 

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a. May develop _____ to _____ days after CEA

5 to 7

 

b. Due to loss of the carotid s_____ b_____ reflex

sinus baroreceptor

 

44. True or False. Immediately following CEA (i.e., in the post-anesthesia care unit), a patient who developed neurologic deficit in the distribution of the endarterectomized carotid should undergo immediate computed tomography/magnetic resonance imaging (CT/MRI) or angiogram.

false (The patient should be emergently reexplored. There is no deficit if flow is reestablished in 45 minutes.)

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45. True or False. When performing CEA, the order of removing clamps after completion of endarterectomy is

 

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a. internal, common, external carotid

false

 

b. internal, external, common carotid

false

 

c. external, common, internal carotid

true (This ensures that any embolic material will be flushed to the external carotid circulation.)

 

d. The order of removal does not matter.

false

 

46. True or False. When performing reexploration of a CEA occlude in the following order:

 

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a. Internal, common, external

false

 

b. Internal, external, common

false

 

c. External, common, internal

false

 

d. Common, external, internal

true

 

47. Complete the following about arteriotomy disruption:

 

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a. If you notice difficulty breathing _____ _____

open wound

 

b. then i_____.

Intubate

 

c. This may be difficult if the _____ is deviated.

trachea

 

48. True or False. A patient with disruption of arteriotomy closure following carotid surgery should never be intubated.

false (Intubation is a high priority.)

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49. Complete the following about anesthesia and monitoring:

 

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a. Hemodynamic intolerance to clamping occurs in _____%.

1 to 4%

 

b. If identified, place a vascular _____.

shunt

 

c. Which is safer: local or general anesthesia?

no difference

 

d. Add thiopental to general anesthesia until EEG burst suppression lasts for _____ to _____ seconds.

15 to 30

 

50. True or False. A shunt is commonly used in carotid surgery when the stump pressure is less than

 

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a. 100 mm Hg

false

 

b. 25 mm Hg

true

 

c. 1 mm Hg

false

 

d. Never use a shunt

false

 

51. Surgical results correlate best with _____ neurologic status.

presenting

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52. Totally occluded carotid and patient presents with mild neurologic deficit.

 

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a. Assume _____ occlusion

chronic

 

b. Have stroke rate of _____ to _____% per year

3 to 5%

 

53. Complete the following about acute carotid occlusion:

 

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a. Some neurologic deficit in _____ to _____

%40 to 70%

 

b. Mortality: _____ to _____%

15 to 55%

 

c. Good recovery in _____ to _____%

2 to 12%

 

54. Six of the symptoms of vertebrobasilar insufficiency (VBI) begin with the letter “d.” They are

 

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a. dr_____ _____

drop attack

 

b. di_____

diplopia

 

c. dy_____

dysarthria

 

d. de_____ _____ _____

defect in vision

 

e. diz_____

dizziness

 

f. de_____ b_____

deficit bilaterally (motor and/or sensory)

 

55. Answer the following about vertebrobasilar insufficiency (VBI):

 

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a. Clinical diagnosis of VBI requires how many of those criteria?

2 or more

 

b. Which symptom suggests:

 

 

     i. Ischemia to the brain?

diplopia near ocular nuclear

 

     ii. Ischemia to lower brain stem?

Dysarthria

 

     iii. Ischemia to occipital cortex?

homonymous hemianopsia

 

56. Complete the following about vision symptoms:

 

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a.

 

 

     i. Carotid artery vision symptoms are _____

unilateral

 

     ii. For example, a_____ f_____

amaurosis fugax

 

b.

 

 

     i. Vertebral artery symptoms are _____

bilateral

 

     ii. For example, h_____ h_____

homonymous hemianopsia

 

57. If a patient has transient episodes of vertigo you may suspect _____.

VBI

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58. The most common cause of VBI

 

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a. is s_____ s_____

subclavian steal

 

b.

 

 

     i. which is r_____ f_____ in the VA

reversed flow

 

     ii. due to p_____ s_____

proximal stenosis

 

     iii. of the s_____ a_____.

subclavian artery

 

59. The mainstay treatment of VBI is a_____.

anticoagulation

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60. Complete the following regarding bow hunter’s stroke:

 

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a. Bow hunter’s stroke is caused by occlusion of the _____ _____

vertebral artery

 

b. resulting from _____ _____.

head rotation

 

c. Can this occur from forceful treatment by a chiropractor?

yes

 

d. The vessel occluded is _____ to the direction of head rotation.

Contralateral

 

e. It is more likely in patients with incompetent _____ _____ arteries.

posterior communicating

 

f. An appropriate test for this condition is _____ _____ _____.

dynamic cerebral angiography (DCA)

 

g. If condition is proved treatment of choice is _____ _____ _____.

decompression of VA atC1-2

 

h. If still symptomatic treatment is_____ _____.

C1-2 fusion

 

Cerebral Arterial Dissections

61. True or False. The following are features of cerebral arterial dissections:

 

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a. Hemorrhage into medial layer

true

 

b. Presentation includes pain, subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), TIA, and Horner syndrome.

true

 

c. Extracranial dissection is treatedsurgically.

false

 

d. Intracranial dissections with SAH are treated surgically.

false

 

62. True or False. Regarding arterial dissection:

 

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a. Hemorrhage can occur outside the vascular lumen due to transintimal extravasation of hematoma.

true

 

b. The hematoma may dissect the internal elastic membrane from the intima.

true

 

c. Subintimal dissection is more common with extracranial lesions.

false (Subintimal dissection is more common with intracranial dissection—subintimal = intracranial.)

 

d. Dissection of the internal elastic membrane results in luminal narrowing.

true

 

63. Matching. Match the dissection with its location.

 

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media; subintima; between media and adventitia

 

 

a. intracranial dissection

 

b. extracranial dissection

,

 

64. Matching. Rank the following dissection sites in order of frequency of occurrence and give their approximate percentages:

 

G7 p.1161:103mm

first; second; third

 

 

a. ACA/PCA/PICA _____%

10%

 

b. basilar/ICA/MCA _____%

30%

 

c. vertebral _____%

60%

 

65. True or False. Headache usually precedes neurologic deficits by less than 1 hour.

false (Headache usually precedes deficits by days to weeks.)

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66. True or False. The most reliable finding on radiographic examination of suspected arterial dissections is

 

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a. direct visualization on CT

false

 

b. crescent sign on T2-weighted (T2W) axial imaging

false

 

c. string sign on angiography

false

 

d. double lumen sign on angiography

true (Double lumen sign on angiography is considered pathognomonic.)

 

67. True or False. In cerebral arterial dissection the angiographic configuration is expected

 

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a. to remain stable

false

 

b. to resolve or worsen

true

 

c. to often change

true

 

68. Mortality in cerebral arterial dissections is higher in

 

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a. _____ lesions

carotid

 

b. carotid _____%

49%

 

c. vertebrobasilar artery (VBA) _____%

22%

 

d. subarachnoid hemorrhage _____%

24

 

e. non-SAH patients _____%

29

 

69. Complete the following regarding carotid dissection:

 

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a. True or False. The most frequent presenting symptom of spontaneous ICA dissection is

 

 

     i. neck pain

false (Pain is 9% more common in VBA.)

 

     ii. neck swelling

false (swelling 2%)

 

     iii. headache

true (headache 59%)

 

     iv. oculosympathetic palsy (partial Horner syndrome)

false (30%)

 

70. Complete the following about vertebral artery dissection:

 

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a. Categories:

 

 

     i. s_____

spontaneous

 

     ii. a_____

aneurysmal

 

     iii. t_____

traumatic

 

b. True or False. Frequency:

 

 

     i. Carotid dissections are more common.

true

 

     ii. Vertebral dissections are more common.

false

 

71. Complete the following regarding cerebral arterial dissections:

 

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a. True or False. Posttraumatic ICA dissection injury mechanisms include

 

 

     i. chiropractic manipulation

true

 

     ii. attempted strangulation

true

 

     iii. postangiography

true

 

     iv. hyperextension of neck with ICA stretch

true (compress ⇒ stretch ⇒ dissection risk poke ⇒ tweak ⇒)

 

b. After trauma symptoms manifest within_____ hours _____%.

24 hours; 75%

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c. The most frequent presenting symptom of posttraumatic ICA dissection is _____ _____.

ischemic symptoms

 

d. Which is more common: traumatic or spontaneous ICA dissection?

traumatic

 

72. True or False. Persistent embolic complications of ICA dissection are indications for the following interventions:

 

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a. interposition venous grafting

true

 

b. EC/IC bypass with maintenance of ICA luminal integrity

false (Extracranial/intracranial [EC/IC] bypass is okay, but once you bypass the clot, close the ICA off to reduce further embolic risk.)

 

c. carotid ligation alone

true

 

d. heparin-warfarin-based anticoagulation with close angiographic observation

true

 

73. Complete the following about traumatic dissections:

 

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a. Occur where VA crosses _____ _____

bony prominences

 

b. Typically the _____ – _____ junction

C1-2

 

c. Can result from

 

 

     i. Manipulation of _____

neck

 

     ii. Automobile a_____

accidents

 

     iii. C_____ treatment

chiropractic

 

     iv. Sudden head _____

turning

 

     v. Blow to _____ of _____

back of neck

 

d. Can produce massive _____ hematomas

neck

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e.

 

 

     i. Angiography demonstrates lesion posterior to the _____

atlas

 

     ii. Which is the distal extracranial _____ _____

third segment

 

f. The first and third portions of the VA are _____.

movable

 

g. The second and fourth portions are immobilized by _____.

bone

 

h. Most commonly angiography

 

 

     i. demonstrates _____ _____

irregular stenosis

 

     ii. of the horizontal loops as they pass _____.

C1

 

74. Complete the following about spontaneous dissection:

 

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a. Tends to be _____

intracranial

 

b. Occur on the _____VA

dominant

 

c. Associated with

 

 

     i. f_____ d_____

fibromuscular dysplasia

 

     ii. m_____

migraine

 

     iii. o_____ c_____

oral contraceptives

 

d. More common in _____ _____

young adults

 

e. Have other sites of dissection _____%

36%

 

f. Have bilateral VA dissection _____%

21%

 

75. True or False. Dissecting aneurysms of the vertebrobasilar arteries commonly present as

 

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a. saccular aneurysms

false

 

b. fusifom aneurysms

true

 

c. subarachnoid hemorrhage

true

 

d. are ameniable to clipping

may be

 

e. altered consciousness

true

 

76. Although most spontaneous vertebral artery dissections are intracranial, those that are extracranial present with _____ _____.

occipital pain

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77. True or False. Dissecting aneurysms of the vertebrobasilar arteries commonly present as

 

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a. saccular aneurysms

false

 

b. fusiform dilatation

true

 

c. subarachnoid hemorrhage

true

 

78. Matching. Match the treatment with the condition.

 

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Treatment:

 

 

medical-anticoagulation; surgical

 

 

Condition:

 

 

a. subarachnoid hemorrhage

 

b. intradural dissection

 

c. extradural dissections that progress clinically or angiographically despite anticoagulation

 

d. non-hemorrhagic small infarction

G6 p. 886:116mm

Cerebrovascular Venous Thrombosis

79. True or False. The following are conditions associated with dural sinus thrombosis formation:

 

G7 p.1166:80mm

a. oral contraceptives

true

 

b. ulcerative colitis

true

 

c. dehydration

true

 

d. peripheral vascular disease

false

 

e. infection

true

 

f. hypercoagulable state

true

 

g. pregnancy

true

 

h. trauma

true

 

80. Hypercoagulable state includes

 

G7 p.1166:135mm

(Hint: a2p4rs)

 

 

a. a_____ III deficiency

antithrombin

 

b. a_____ antibodies

antiphospholipid

 

c. p_____ C deficiency

protein

 

d. p_____ S deficiency

protein

 

e. p_____ _____ hemoglobinuria

paroxysmal nocturnal

 

f. p_____ deficiency

plasminogen

 

g. r_____ to activated protein C

resistance

 

h. s_____ lupus erythematosis

systemic

 

81. Complete the following about cerebrovascular venous thrombosis:

 

G7 p.1167:15mm

a. Incidence is 1 in _____ births.

10,000

 

b. Period of highest risk of cerebrovascular venous thrombosis during the puerperium is within the first _____ _____ after delivery.

2 weeks

 

82. True or False. Dural sinus thrombosis occurs more often in the superior sagittal sinus and the

 

G7 p.1167:40mm

a. right transverse sinus

false

 

b. left transverse sinus

true

 

c. straight sinus

false

 

d. inferior sagittal sinus

false

 

83. Incidence of dural sinus thrombosis (DST)

 

G7 p.1164:47mm

a. in the superior sagittal sinus is_____%

70%

 

b. in the left transverse sinus is _____%

70%

 

c. in multiple sinuses is _____%

71%

 

84. Complete the following about clinical symptoms from superior sagittal sinus thrombosis (SSS):

 

G7 p.1167:125mm

a. No symptoms _____ _____

anterior third

 

b. Spastically, increased muscle tone _____ _____

middle third

 

c. Cortical blindness or edema, or death_____ _____

posterior third

 

85. What are the clinical symptoms of thrombosis of SSS?

 

G7 p.1167:126mm

a. Anterior third: may produce _____ _____

no symptoms

 

b. Middle third: may produce _____

spasticity

 

c. Thrombosis of posterior third: may produce _____, _____, _____

blindness, edema, death

 

86. Thrombosis of the jugular bulb may produce the following syndrome:

 

G7 p.1167:152mm

a. symptoms (Hint: bash)

 

 

     i. b_____

breathlessness

 

     ii. a_____

aphonia

 

     iii. s_____

swallowing difficulties

 

     iv. h_____

hoarseness

 

b. named _____ _____

Vernet syndrome

also see G6 p.86:140mm

c. nerves involved are _____ _____ _____

9, 10, 11

 

d. due to compression of the pars _____

nervosa

 

87. The best way to diagnose thrombosis of a venous sinus is by

 

G7 p.1167:175mm

a. M_____ or

MRI

 

b. a_____.

angiography

 

88. With dural sinus thrombosis and plain CT scan, suspect the diagnosis of DST.

 

G7 p.1168:20mm

a. May be _____ in 20%

normal

 

b. Intraparenchymal f_____ hemorrhage _____%

flame; 20%

 

c. Small v_____ in _____%

ventricles; 50%

 

d. White matter e_____

edema

 

e. Above changes occurring b_____

bilaterally

 

89. Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus

 

G7 p.1168:44mm

a. may produce a configuration on CT scan called a _____ _____,

delta sign

 

b. which represents _____ _____ in the _____

clotted blood in the sinus

 

c. or on a CT with contrast it may produce an _____ _____ _____.

empty delta sign

 

90. Complete the following about delta sign types:

 

G7 p1168:46mm

a. Delta sign—a triangular-shaped configuration—is seen on

 

 

     i. CT _____ contrast

without

 

     ii. Represents _____ _____

clotted blood

 

     iii. _____ the sinus

within

 

b. Pseudo delta sign is

 

 

     i. CT _____ contrast

without

 

     ii. Represents _____ around SSS

SAH

 

c. Empty delta sign is seen in

 

 

     i. CT _____ contrast

with

 

     ii. Represents enhancement of _____

dura

 

     iii. More so than the intra sinus _____

clot

 

91. True or False. The following are benefits of assessing thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus with MRI:

 

G7 p.1168:95mm

a. preferred diagnostic procedure

true

 

b. can demonstrate vascular changes

true

 

c. can demonstrate parenchymal changes

true

 

d. can identify congenital absence of sinus

true

 

e. shows cerebral edema

true

 

f. can estimate age of thrombosis

true

 

g. more advantageous than angiography

true

 

92. Complete the following regarding cerebrovascular venous thrombosis:

 

G7 p.1169:65mm

a. True or False. Heparin is the treatment of choice for dural venous sinus thrombosis with associated intracranial hemorrhage.

true

 

b. Must not treat

 

 

     i. with _____

steroids

 

     ii. because they reduce _____ and sthereby increase _____

fibrinolysis; thrombosis

 

c. Should also correct

 

 

     i. _____ _____

underlying abnormality (i.e., use antibiotics)

 

     ii. and control _____

hypertension

 

d. continue anticoagulation for _____ to _____ months

3 to 6

G7 p.1169:175mm

93. What is the prognosis of superior sagittal sinus (SSS) thrombosis?

 

G7 p.1170:65mm

a. Mortality is _____%.

5 to 70% (approximately 30%)

 

b. Poor prognostic indicators are

 

 

     i. e _____ of a_____

extremes of age (infancy or old age)

 

     ii. c_____

coma

 

     iii. n_____ d_____

neurological deterioration (rapid)

 

c. Treatment for visual loss from papilledema is o_____ n_____ s_____ f_____.

optic nerve sheath fenestration

G7 p.1169:170mm

Moyamoya Disease

94. Complete the following regarding moyamoya disease:

 

G7 p.1170:125mm

a. Moyamoya means p_____ o_____ s_____.

puff of smoke

 

b. Skull base arteries are _____

narrowed

 

c. due to a thickened _____.

intima

 

d. _____ deposits occur

Lipid

 

e. without evidence of _____.

inflammation

 

f. The other vascular abnormality that occurs is _____, which

aneurysms (intracranial)

G7 p.1171:65mm

g. may be due to a _____ defect in the wall.

congenital

 

h. Aneurysms occur in unusual sites.

 

 

     i. Cerebral arteries at their _____

periphery

 

     ii. Posterior/anterior _____

choroidal

 

     iii. Recurrent artery of _____

Heubner

 

     iv. Frequency of VB aneurysms is _____%

62%

 

i. The country with highest incidence is_____.

Japan

 

j. If untreated the prognosis of major deficit or death in 2 years is _____%.

73%

 

k. Treated prognosis is good in _____%.

58%

 

95. Presentation in

 

G7 p.1171:150mm

a. children is by _____ attacks

ischemic

 

b. adults is by _____

hemorrhage

 

c. Diagnose with

 

 

     i. a_____

angiography

 

     ii. M_____

MRA

 

d. The best medical treatment is _____.

none known to be beneficial

 

e. Surgical treatments all involve _____.

revascularization

G7 p.1173:100mm

f. The surgical procedure of choice is _____ _____ _____.

superficial temporal artery—middle cerebral artery (STAMCA) bypass

 

96. What is the treatment for moyamoya disease?

 

G7 p.1173:120mm

a. EMS = _____

encephalomyosynangiosis

 

b. EDAS = _____

encephaloduroarterio-synangiosis

 

c. OPT = _____

omental pedicle transplantation

 

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Aug 6, 2016 | Posted by in NEUROSURGERY | Comments Off on Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease

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