Operations and Procedures

Operations and Procedures


Intraoperative Dyes







































1. Matching. Match the intraoperative dyes with their characteristics.


 


G7 p.144:70mm


Dyes:


 


 


indigo carmine; methylene blue; fluorescein



 


Characteristic:


 


 


a. carries a small risk of seizures when administered intrathecally



 


b. is cytotoxic and should not be used at all



 


c. can be used to demonstrate arteriovenous malformation (AVM) vessels intraoperatively



 


d. used to identify cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks and is considered safe



 


Surgical Hemostasis
















































































2. Bone wax inhibits_____formation.


bone


G7 p.146:82mm


3. True or False. The following chemical hemostatic agent exerts its effect by promoting platelet aggregation:


 


G7 p.146:100mm


a. Gelfoam (gelatin sponge)


false


 


b. Oxycel (oxidized cellulose)


false


 


c. Avitene (microfibrillar collagen)


true (Avitene, that is, microfibrillar collagen, provides platelet adhesion and aggregation. It loses its effectiveness with severe thrombocytopenia less than 10,000/mL.)


 


d. thrombin


false


 


4. Matching. Match the surgical hemostasis substance with its trade name.


 


G7 p.146:100mm


Trade name:


 


 


Thrombostat; Gelfoam; Oxycel; Surgicel; Avitene


 


 


Substance:


 


 


a. gelatin sponge



 


b. oxidized cellulose



 


c. regenerated cellulose



 


d. microfibrillar collagen



 


e. thrombin



 


5. Complete the following about surgical hemostasis.


 


G7 p.146:139mm


a. What may thrombin cause if placed on the brain?


significant edema


 


b. If the_____has been_____.


the pia; disrupted


 


Intraoperative Brain Swelling
























































6. Complete the brain swelling intraoperative checklist.


 


G7 p.147:25mm


Hint: decompress


 


 


a. d_____ _____


drain CSF


 


b. e_____ _____


elevate head


 


c. c_____(_____)


CO2 (hypercarbia)


 


d. o_____of_____ _____


obstruction of jugular veins


 


e. m_____


mannitol


 


f. p_____


pyperventilate


 


g. r_____ _____


remove bone


 


h. e_____ _____


excise brain (temporal or frontal lobes)


 


i. (s)


 


 


j. (s)


 


 


Craniotomies
























































































































7. Complete the following regarding the risks of craniotomy:


 


G7 p.147:140mm


a. increased neurological deficit _____%


10%


 


b. postop hemorrhage_____%


1%


 


c. infection_____%


2%


 


d. anesthetic complications_____%


0.2%


 


8. Complete the following regarding anticonvulsants.


 


G7 p.148:117mm


a. True or False. Maintain their use if cortical incision is anticipated.


true (use Keppra)


 


b. Describe the method of loading.


500 mg PO or IV q 12 hours


 


c. For supratentorial craniotomy maintain for_____.


2 to 3 months


 


d. For cortical incision maintain for_____.


2 to 3 months


 


e. For aneurysm, AVM, or meningioma maintain for_____.


6 to 12 months


 


f. For head injury (see Head Injury guidelines) use for_____.


1 week


 


9. True or False. The following might be caused by pneumocephalus:


 


G7 p.149:48mm


a. lethargy


true


 


b. confusion


true


 


c. headache


true


 


d. nausea


true


 


e. vomiting


true


 


f. seizures


true


 


10. True or False. Simple pneumocephalus (the presence of air in the cranium not apparently under pressure) can cause neurologic symptoms postoperatively.


true


G7 p.149:52mm


11. Possible symptoms include l_____, c_____, h_____, n_____, v_____, and s_____.


lethargy, confusion, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures (Obviously, other etiologies, including subclinical seizures, and metabolic causes should be ruled out.)


G7 p.149:52mm


12. Symptoms usually improve over_____days.


1to3


G7 p.149:62mm


13. If postoperative seizures occur, consider the following:


 


G7 p.149:100mm


Hint: abci


 


 


a. a_____ _____


anticonvulsant level—draw blood


 


b. b_____


bolus—additional anticonvulsants


 


c. c_____ _____


CAT scan—to identify if any cause


 


d. i_____


intubate—to protect airway


 


Posterior Fossa Craniotomy




























































































































































































































































































































































































































14. True or False. The correct treatment for air embolism sustained during a craniotomy performed with the patient in a sitting position is


 


G7 p.153:120mm


a. to find and occlude site of entry or rapidly pack wound with sopping wet sponges


true


 


b. bilateral or right-sided jugular venous compression


true


 


c. ventilation with 100% O2


true


 


d. rotating the patient right side down


false (Patient should be turned left side down to trap air in the right atrium.)


 


e. aspirating air from central venous pressure (CVP) catheter


true


 


f. avoiding positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), which is ineffective and may worsen the risk of paradoxical air embolism


true


 


15. Complete the following about posterior fossa craniectomy and air embolism:


 


G7 p.153:130mm


a. Effect of air in right atrium is


 


 


     i. h_____


hypotension due to impaired venous return


 


     ii. a_____


arrhythmias


 


b. Paradoxical air embolism may occur if


 


 


     i. p_____ f_____ o_____


patent foramen ovale


 


     ii. p_____arteriovenous (AV) f_____


pulmonary AV fistula


 


c. Incidence in sitting position is_____%.


7 to 25%


 


d. Precautions require


 


 


     i. D_____ _____ _____


Doppler precordial ultrasound


 


     ii. C_____ _____ _____ _____ _____


CVP catheter in right atrium


 


e. Earliest clue to occurrence is_____.


fall in end tidal pCO2


 


16. How does air embolism cause problems?


 


G7 p.153:130mm


a. Air becomes trapped in the_____ _____,


right atrium


 


b. impairs_____ _____, and


venous return


 


c. produces_____.


hypotension


 


17. Outline the intraoperative treatment for air embolism during a craniotomy.


 


G7 p.153:145mm


Hint: occlude


 


 


     i. o_____


occlude entry site


 


     ii. c_____


cover with wet laps


 


     iii. c_____


compress jugular veins


 


     iv. l_____


left side down lower head


 


     v. u_____


ventilate/increase volume


 


     vi. d_____


discontinue nitrous


 


     vii. e_____


evacuate air


 


18. Earliest clues to occurrence include


 


G7 p.154:20mm


a. fall in_____ _____ _____


end tidal pCO2


 


b. sound on Doppler is_____ _____


machinery sound


 


c. blood pressure_____


hypotension


 


19. True or False. The following approach is most applicable for a vertebral endarterectomy.


 


G7 p.155:22mm


a. midline suboccipital craniotomy


false


 


b. extreme lateral posterior fossa approach


false


 


c. paramedian suboccipital craniotomy


true (Paramedian suboccipital craniotomy gives decent access to the vertebral artery and to the posterior inferior cerebellar artery [PICA] and the vertebrobasilar junction.)


 


d. subtemporal craniotomy


false


 


20. Consider the concept of “5-5-5.”


 


G7 p.155:90mm


a. i. This relates to the_____incision


skin


 


     ii. for a linear_____incision


paramedian


 


     iii. for access to the_____.


CPA


 


b.


 


 


     i. The first number relates to the mm medial to the_____ _____.


mastoid notch


 


     ii. The second number relates to the_____ _____ the notch.


cm above


 


     iii. The third number relates to the _____ _____the notch.


cm below


 


21. Matching. Match the incision with the objective.


 


G7 p.155:90mm


Incision:


 


 


5-6-4, 5-5-5, 5-4-6 Objective: approach for


 


 


a. the fifth nerve



 


b. hemifacial spasm



 


c. glossopharyngeal neuralgia



 


d. microvascular trigeminal decompression



 


e. vestibular schwannoma



 


22. Location of the inferior margin of the transverse sinus can be estimated


 


G7 p.156:20mm


a. to be_____f_____ _____ above the


two finger breadths


 


b. m_____n_____.


mastoid notch


 


23. Describe the Frazier burr hole.


 


G7 p.156:90mm


a. It is used


 


 


     i. p_____


prophylactically


 


     ii. to relive p_____ swelling


postoperative


 


     iii. due to h_____ or


hydrocephalus


 


     iv. e_____.


edema


 


b. It is located


 


 


     i. _____to_____cm from the midline


3 to 4


 


     ii. _____to_____cm above the inion in adults


6 to 7


 


     iii. _____to_____cm above the inion in children


3 to 4


 


24. Complete the following regarding posterior fossa postop complications:


 


G7 p.157:120mm


a. Respiratory: prevent by_____


keeping patient intubated


 


b. Hypertension: maintain SBP below with


160 with nitroprusside


 


c. Acute hydrocephalus: treat_____with_____


ventricular tap—external ventricular drain (EVD)


 


d. Meningitis: prevent by prompt repair of any_____ _____ _____


cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak


 


25. Blood pressure above_____is dangerous for the postoperative posterior fossa patient.


160 mm Hg systolic


G7 p.157:148mm


26. Complete the following regarding the posterior fossa:


 


G7 p.157:160mm


a. Posterior fossa increased pressure is heralded by changes in


 


 


     i. b_____p_____


blood pressure (increase)


 


     ii. r_____p_____


respiratory pattern


 


b. not by


 


 


     i. p_____i_____


pupillary inequality


 


     ii. m_____s_____


level mental status


 


     iii. l_____c_____


ICP changes


 


27. Considerations for postoperative posterior fossa emergency include


 


G7 p.158:20mm


a. clinically


 


 


     i. blood pressure (BP)_____


high


 


     ii. respirations_____


labored


 


b. recommended treatment


 


 


     i. i_____


intubate


 


     ii. t_____ _____


tap ventricle


 


     iii. o_____ _____


open wound


 


c. Should you


 


 


     i. obtain a computed tomographic (CT) scan first?


no


 


     ii. wait for operating room availability?


no


 


28. Indicate whether increased pressure in the posterior fossa or supratentorial compartment produces a change in the following:


 


G7 p.158:30mm


a. pupillary reflexes


supratentorial compartment


 


b. level of consciousness


supratentorial compartment


 


c. increase in intracranial pressure (ICP)_____


supratentorial compartment


 


d. changes in respiration_____


posterior fossa


 


e. rise in blood pressure_____


posterior fossa


 


Pterional Craniotomy
















































29. Matching. Match the head position with the location of the aneurysm.


 


G7 p.159:70mm


Head position:


 


 


angled 30 degrees, angled 45 degrees, angled 60 degrees


 


 


Location of aneurysm:


 


 


a. ICA P-comm



 


b. carotid terminus



 


c. middle cerebral artery



 


d. basilar bifurcation



 


e. A-comm



 


30. Name the artery(ies) that cross the sylvian fissure.


none cross


G7 p.161:92mm


Temporal Craniotomy




































31. True or False. A temporal craniotomy can allow access to the following structures.


 


G7 p.162:120mm


a. foramen ovale


true


 


b. Meckel cave


true


 


c. labyrinthine and upper tympanic portion of the facial nerve


true


 


32. A temporal lobectomy


 


G7 p.163:115mm


a. can safely resect_____cm in the dominant hemisphere


4 to 5 (before injury to Wernicke area)


 


b. and_____cm in the nondominant hemisphere.


6 to 7 (before injury to optic radiations)


 


Frontal Craniotomy
































33. Complete the following regarding the superior sagittal sinus (SSS):


 


G7 p.163:170mm


a. The risk in sacrifice of the SSS is_____ _____.


venous infarction


 


b. True or False. It almost always occurs with sacrifice of


 


 


     i. the posterior third


true


 


     ii. the middle third


true


 


     iii. the anterior third


false


 


Skull Base Surgery




















34. The Dolenc approach is


 


G6 p.609:95mm


a. designed to remove the_____ _____ _____


anterior clinoid extradurally


 


b. and provide access to the_____ _____ _____


proximal carotid artery


 


Decompressive Craniectomy
















































35. Indications for decompressive craniectomy are


 


G7 p.165:55mm


a.


 


 


     i. m_____m_____cerebral artery occlusion


malignant middle


 


     ii. Primarily for the n_____- d_____ hemisphere


non-dominant


 


b. p_____ i _____hypertension


persistent intracranial


 


c. True or False. It is necessary to open the dura.


true


G7 p.165:110mm


d. Skull reimplantation can be considered after_____to_____weeks


6to12


G7 p.165:140mm


e.


 


G7 p.165:147mm


     i. A _____opening is best


large


 


     ii. Approximately_____ by_____cm or larger


12 by 12


 


Approaches to the Third Ventricle















































































































































































































































36. Study Chart.


 


G7 p. 168:110mm


a. t_____


transcortical


 


b. t_____


transcallosal


 


     i. a_____


anterior


 


     ii. p_____


posterior


 


c. s_____


subfrontal


 


     i. s_____


subchiasmatic


 


     ii. o_____


opticocarotid


 


     iii. l_____ t_____


lamina terminalis


 


     iv. t_____


transsphenoidal


 


d. t_____


transsphenoidal


 


e. s_____


subtemporal


 


f. s_____


stereotactic


 


37. What is the risk of postoperative seizures after a transcortical approach to the anterior third ventricle (e.g., for a colloid cyst)?


5%


G7 p.168:125mm


38. What are the principles of tumor removal


 


G7 p.168:170mm


a. Veins must be preserved at all_____.


costs


 


b. First remove the tumor from within the _____


capsule


G7 p.168:180mm


c. If adhesions seem unyielding the most likely cause is i_____ i_____ evacuation.


incomplete intracapsular


G7 p.169:15mm


39. Complete the following:


 


G7 p. 170:180mm


a. True or False. A disconnection syndrome (split-brain syndrome) is common with


 


 


     i. posterior callosotomy through splenium


true (where more visual information crosses)


 


     ii. anterior callosotomy


false


 


     iii. callosotomy < 2.5 cm in length from a point 1 to 2 cm behind the tip of the genu.


false


 


b. Which of the above approaches avoids the disconnection syndrome best?


callosotomy < 2.5 cm in length from a point 1 to 2 cm behind the tip of the genu


 


40. Describe the transcallosal approach to the third ventricle.


 


G7 p.169:170mm


a. The superior sagittal sinus (SSS) is often to the _____ of the sagittal suture.


right


 


b. The cranial opening should be


 


G7 p.170:40mm


     i. anterior to the coronal suture


two third


 


     ii. and _____ behind it.


one third


 


c. The two cingulate gyri may be adherent in the midline and can be mistaken for c_____ c_____.


corpus callosum


G7 p.170:130mm


d.


 


 


     i. The corpus callosum has a distinct _____ color.


white


 


     ii. It is located beneath the paired _____ arteries.


pericallosal


 


e. The opening is usually made between the p_____ p_____ arteries.


paired pericallosal


G7 p.170:155mm


f. The trajectory of dissection is from the


 


 


     i. c _____ s_____


coronal suture


 


     ii. the e_____ a_____ m_____.


external auditory meatus


 


     iii. The f_____ of M _____ lies along this line.


foramen of Monro


 


g.


 


G7 p.170:173mm


     i. It is helpful to fenestrate the s _____ P_____


septum pellicidum


 


     ii. to prevent it from b_____ into the ventricle


bulging


 


     iii. especially in a case of c_____ c_____.


colloid cyst


 


41. How can you tell which ventricle you are in?


 


G7 p.171:38mm


a. The foramen of Monro is located m_____


medially


 


b. If the choroid plexus goes to the left to enter the foramen of Monro you are in the _____ ventricle.


right


 


c. If you see no choroid plexus and no veins you may be in a c_____ s_____ p _____


cavum septum pellucidum


G7 p.171:80mm


d. The safe way to enlarge the foramen of Monro is posteriorly between the _____ _____ and the _____.


choroid plexus; fornix


G7 p.171:115mm


42. Complete the following about approaches to the third ventricle:


 


G7 p.172:145mm


a. The interhemispheric approach runs risk of injury to _____ _____ _____


bilateral cingulate gyrus


 


b. which may produce _____ _____.


transient mutism


 


c. The anterior transcallosal approach runs risk of injury to _____ _____


bilateral fornices


 


d. which may produce problem with s_____-t_____ m_____ and n_____ l_____.


short-term memory and new learning


G7 p.172:135mm


e. The transcortical approach is


 


G7 p.172:98mm


     i. made through the_____ _____ gyrus.


middle frontal


 


     ii. This is about the same spot used for e_____v_____d_____.


external ventricular drain


 


     iii. called_____point.


Kocher


 


43. Localizing levels in spine surgery. Most patients have _____ presacral vertebra.


24


G7 p.173:175mm


44. The aortic bifurcation is at the mid-body of _____.


L3


G7 p.175:90mm


Transoral Approach to Anterior Craniocervical Junction








































































45. Complete the following regarding transoral approach to anterior craniocervical junction:


 


G7 p.176:125mm


a. What percent of patients need posterior fusion after a transoral odontoidectomy?


75%


 


b. The patient must be able to open the mouth at least mm.


25


G7 p.177:115mm


c.


 


G7 p.177:140mm


     i. The tubercle of the_____


atlas


 


     ii. can be palpated through the posterior _____


pharynx


 


     iii. in order to locate the _____.


midline


 


d. If C1 sparing is not done the central _____ cm of the _____ is removed.


3; atlas


G7 p.177:168mm


e. i. There is about to _____ mm working distance


20 to 25


G7 p.177:175mm


     ii. between the _____ _____ _____ where


two vertebral arteries


 


     iii. they enter the f_____ t_____ at the inferior aspect of


foramen transversarium


 


     iv. the lateral masses of _____


C2


 


46. Complete the following regarding anterior access:


 


G7 p.178:110mm


a. To T3 use a s_____ s_____ approach.


sternal splitting


 


b. At T10 the attachment of the increases the difficulty of this approach.


diaphragm


G7 p.179:45mm


c. The location of the bifurcation of the vena cava is from just above to just below the _____ disc.


L4-L5


G7 p.179:90mm


Surgical Fusion of the Cervical Spine










































































































































































































































































































47. What are the disadvantages of occipitocervical fusion?



G7 p.179:140mm


a. r _____range of motion


reduces (movement at the occipitocervical junction)


 


b. _____ is higher than_____


nonunion rate; C1-C2 fusion


 


48. True or False. The following is an indication for occipitocervical fusion:


 


G7 p.179:150mm


a. congenital absence of C1 arch


true


 


b. upward migration of the odontoid into the foramen magnum


true


 


c. congenital anomalies of occipitocervical joints


true


 


d. type II odontoid fracture


false


 


49. Complete the following regarding occipitocervical fusion:


 


G7 p.179:145mm


a. Patient will lose about _____% of neck flexion.


30%


 


b.


 


G7 p.180:80mm


     i. Keel plate must be placed at the


thickest


 


     ii. Region of the_____ occipital bone.


midline


 


     iii. It is advisable to _____ it pre-operatively.


measure


 


50. True or False. After occipito-cervical fusion we use a halo for


 


G7 p.181:64mm


a. severe fractures


true


 


b. elderly patients


true


 


c. unreliable patients


true


 


d. smokers


true


 


e. 8 to 12 weeks


true


 


51. True or False. The C1-C2 complex is responsible for the following percentage of axial rotation:


 


G7 p.181:89mm


a. 10%


false


 


b. 15%


false


 


c. 25%


false


 


d. 50%


true


 


e. 75%


false


 


52. Complete the following regarding anterior odontoid screw fixation:


 


G7 p.181:89mm


a. C1-C2 complex is responsible for _____ % of head rotation.


50%


 


b. Stability depends on the integrity of the


 


G7 p.181:101mm


     i. o_____ p_____and the


odontoid process


 


     ii. a_____ t_____ligament


atlantoaxial transverse


 


c. Indicated in patients who have a type _____ odontoid fracture and an intact _____ligament


II, transverse


G7 p.181:130mm


d. Contraindicated if there is a fracture


 


G7 p.181:140mm


     i. of the _____ _____


vertebral body


 


     ii. and if the fracture is less than _____ months old


6


G7 p.181:162mm


e.


 


G7 p.183:80mm


     i. The immediate postop strength is only _____%.


50%


 


     ii. Therefore a brace is recommended for weeks.


6


 


     iii. If the patient has osteoporosis use a _____.


halo


 


53. Complete the following regarding anterior odontoid screw fixation:


 


G7 p.181:101mm


a. The most important structure holding the odontoid in position against the anterior arch of C1 is the_____ ligament.


transverse


 


b. aka the _____ligament.


atlantoaxial


 


c. It is the horizontal limb of the_____ ligament.


cruciate


 


54. True or False. The following condition is an indication for anterior odontoid screw fixation:


 


G7 p.181:130mm


a. pathologic odontoid fracture


false


 


b. type III odontoid fracture where the fracture line is in the caudal portion of body of C2


false


 


c. type I odontoid fracture that is reducible


false


 


d. type II irreducible odontoid fracture


false


 


e. type II reducible odontoid fracture


true


 


f. age of fracture is less than 6 months


true


 


55. What are indications for odontoid screw?


 


G7 p.181:131mm


a. Fracture must be_____


reducible


 


b. Type_____ fracture


II


 


c. Which ligament must be intact?


transverse


 


56. True or False. The following are contraindications for anterior odontoid screw fixation:


 


G7 p.181:140mm


a. disruption of atlantal transverse ligament


true


 


b. disruption of apical ligament


false


 


c. fracture of C2 vertebral body


true


 


d. reducible odontoid type II fracture


false


 


57. Indications for odontoid screw fixation include


 


G7 p.181:160mm


a. type of fracture:_____


II odontoid


 


b. age of fracture: less than_____ _____ old


6 months


 


c. ligament: t_____ l_____ i_____


transverse ligament intact


 


d. judged by:


 


 


     i. _____ and


MRI


 


     ii. _____ of _____


rule of Spence


 


e.


 


 


     i. The immediate postop strength is only _____%


50%


G7 p.183:80mm


     ii. Therefore a brace is recommended for _____ weeks


6


 


     iii. If the patient has osteoporosis, use a halo _____


 


58. Provide fusion rates with age of fracture.


 


G7 p.181:162mm


a. Fusion rates in fractures more than 18 months old: _____%


25%


 


b. Fusion rates in fractures less than 6 months old: _____%


90%


 


Atlantoaxial Fusion (C1-C2 Arthrodesis)



































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































































59. Characterize atlantoaxial fusion (C1-C2 arthrodesis).


 


G7 p.183:125mm


a. The patient will lose about _____%of head rotation


50%


 


b. Transarticular screws


 


G7 p.184:150mm


     i. Danger is to the v_____ a_____


vertebral artery


 


     ii. Provides i_____ s_____


immediate stabilization


 


     iii. Requires preop _____ to study vertebral arteries


CT


G7 p.184:175mm


60. True or False. The following is an indication for atlantoaxial fusion:


 


G7 p.183:140mm


a. type I odontoid fracture


false


 


b. disruption of alar ligament of dens


false


 


c. disruption of apical ligament of dens


false


 


d. vertebrobasilar insufficiency with head turning


true (Disruption of alar or apical ligament of dens does not render the spine unstable as long as the transverse ligament is intact.)


 


61. Characterize bow hunter’s sign.


 


G7 p.183:82mm


a. What is bow hunter’s sign?


vertebrobasilar insufficiency with head turning


 


b. What is the treatment for bow hunter’s sign?


atlantoaxial fusion (C1-C2 arthrodesis)


 


62. Characterize a C1-C2 fusion.


 


G7 p.183:125mm


a. What mobility is lost?


 


Also


     i. head rotation _____%


50%


G6p.623:170mm


     ii. lateral mobility_____ %


35%


 


b. Which technique produces less loss of mobility?


 


 


     i. Brooks


All are the same in regard to loss of mobility.


 


     ii. Gallie


All are the same in regard to loss of mobility.


 


     iii. Sonntag


All are the same in regard to loss of mobility.


 


63. Describe the fusion technique and differentiate.


 


G7 p.184:75mm Also


a. Brooks fusion


 


G6p.624:120mm


     i. sublaminar to_____


C1 and C2 sublaminar wiring


 


     ii. with _____ grafts


two-wedge bone


 


b. Gallie fusion


 


 


     i. sublaminar to_____


C1 only


 


     ii. with _____ graft


“H” graft wired into place to C1 only


 


c. Sonntag fusion


 


 


     i. sublaminar to


C1 only


 


     ii. with _____ graft


bicortical graft wedged between C1 and C2


 


64. Characterize C1-C2 transarticular facet screw


 


G7 p.184:175mm


a. Special preop test needed is a thin cut CT scan from the


 


 


     i. _____ _____


occipital condyles


 


     ii. through to C_____


C3


 


     iii. to look for the location of the _____ _____.


vertebral arteries


 


b. A fusion rate of up to _____% has been reported.


99%


 


65. With postoperative immobilization:


 


G6 p.625:25mm


a. The use of what apparatus is considered optimal immobilization of the cervical spine?


halo brace


 


b. It reduces cervical motion by_____ %.


95%


 


c. It is mandatory for use in


 


 


     i. r_____ _____


rheumatoid arthritis


 


     ii. o_____


osteopenia


 


d. The next best apparatus is the_____- _____ -_____ _____ _____.


sternal-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI) brace


 


e. Use this apparatus for_____weeks.


12to16


 


f. Follow with a_____ for_____ weeks.


hard collar for 4 to 6


 


g. Use _____-_____ _____ to determine if this treatment was satisfactory.


flexion-extension films


 


66. Give the frequency of osseous fusions for the listed techniques.


 


G6 p.625:60mm


a. Brooks _____%


70 to 85%


 


b. Gallie _____%


70 to 85%


 


c. Sonntag_____ %


97%


 


67. True or False. The following is associated with nonunion in atlantoaxial fusion:


 


G6 p.625:80mm


a. rheumatoid arthritis


true


 


b. cigarette smoking


true


 


c. osteoporosis


true


 


d. nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


 


true


68. What are modifying correctible risk factors for a C1-C2 arthrodesis?


 


G6p.625:100mm


a. c_____ s_____


cigarette smoking


 


b. m _____-o_____


malnutrition-osteoporosis


 


c. N_____


stopping suppressive drugs (NSAID) 1 week before and 2 weeks after surgery


 


d. s_____


steroids


 


e. i_____


immunosuppressives


 


f. a _____b_____


use autologous bone


 


69. Complete the following:


 


G6p.625:105mm


a. How does smoking produce nonunion of fusions?


interferes with vascularization of healing bone grafts


 


b. What is the responsible chemical?


nicotine


 


c. Will it help if patients stop smoking by using nicotine patches?


no


 


70. Complete the following concerning an anterior odontoid screw:


 


G7 p.183:85mm


a. After placement what postop treatment is recommended?


immobilization in cervical brace


 


b. How long?


6 weeks


 


c. If patient has osteoporosis, use_____


halo


 


71. Complete the following concerning a C1-C2 transarticular facet screw:


 


G7 p.184:140mm


a. Indication—used in conjunction with _____ _____


Sonntag fusion


 


b. Benefit


 


 


     i. provides immediate_____


stabilization


 


     ii. avoids postoperative_____


external orthosis


 


     iii. A major risk of the procedure is _____ _____ _____.


vertebral artery injury


 


72. Characterize atlantoaxial-axial fusion (C1-C2arthrodesis).


 


G7 p.183:125mm


a. The patient will lose about _____% of head rotation.


50%


 


b. Transarticular screws


 


G7 p.184:150mm


     i. Danger is to the v_____ a_____


vertebral artery


 


     ii. Provides i_____ s_____


immediate stabilization


 


     iii. Requires preop _____ to study vertebral arteries


CT


G7 p.184:175mm


73. Complete the following regarding surgical fusion of lumbar and lumbosacral spine:


 


G7 p.191:103mm


a. True or False. A lumbar fusion that includes L1


 


 


     i. Should not be terminated at L1


true


 


     ii. Should not be terminated at T12


true


 


b. Pedicle screws


 


G7 p.191:145mm


     i. Should be _____ to _____ % of pedicle


70 to 80%


 


     ii. Should be greater than mm in the adult


5.5


 


     iii. The length should be _____ to _____ % of the vertebral body


70 to 80%


 


     iv. typically_____ to _____mm long


40 to 50


 


c. Medial angles for lumbar pedicle screws


 


G7 p.192:15mm


     i. L1 level—medial angle should be _____ degrees


5


 


     ii. L2 level—medial angle should be _____degrees


10


 


     iii. L3 level—medial angle should be _____degrees


15


 


     iv. L4 level—medial angle should be _____degrees


20


 


     v. L5 level—medial angle should be _____degrees


25


 


     vi. S1 level—medial angle should be _____degrees


25


 


     vii. S2 level—medial angle should be _____degrees


45


 


d. On AP view if screw tip


 


 


     i. Crosses the midline there is a _____ breech


medial


 


     ii. Does not pass medial to the medial edge of the pedicle there is likely a _____ breech


lateral


 


e. Posterior lumbar interbody fusion (Plif and Tlif)


 


G7 p.193:15mm


     i. Not appropriate if _____height is preserved


disc


 


     ii. Usually supplemented with_____ _____


pedicle screws


 


f. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion


 


G7 p.195:18mm


     i. has a risk of_____ _____


retrograde ejaculation


 


     ii. of from _____ to _____%


2 to 45%


 


74. True or False or Unreliable. In assessing lumbar fusion the following tests can suggest success:


 


G7 p.198:40mm


a. static x-rays


false


 


b. flexion—extension views


true


 


c. technetium 99 bone scan


false


 


d. good clinical outcome


unreliable


 


e. CT scan


true


 


75. Components necessary for bone graft fusion are


 


G7 p.198:100mm


Hint: IGC


 


 


a. Osteoinduction is _____ of mesenchymal cells.


recruitment


 


b. Osteogenesis is the process of forming _____ _____.


new bone


 


c. Osteoconduction structure adds _____ _____ and acts as a _____.


new vessels, scaffold


 


 


Hint:


 


 


Induces mesenchymal cells to


 


 


transform


 


 


Generates bone cells


 


 


Constructs bone scaffold


 


76. Allograft provides only osteo- _____.


conduction


G7 p.199:92mm


77. DBM


 


G7 p.199:92mm


a. aka as d_____ bone m_____


demineralized; matrix


 


b. has _____ and _____ properties


inductive and conductive


 


78. BMP


 


G7 p.199:145mm


a. aka bone m_____ p_____


morphogenic protein


 


b. has _____ properties


inductive


 


c. may cause e_____ b_____


ectopic bone


 


d. approved by FDA only for_____


Alif


G7 p.199:163mm


79. Complete the following regarding graft procurement:


 


G7 p.200:73mm


a. Anterior iliac bone graft


 


 


     i. Obtain _____to _____cm


3to4


 


     ii. _____to the anterior superior iliac crest


lateral


 


     iii. To avoid the l_____ f_____ c_____ nerve


lateral femoral cutaneous


 


     iv. Also need to avoid injury to the i_____ and i_____


ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric


 


b. Posterior iliac crest bone graft


 


G7 p.200:103mm


     i. Obtain from the_____


medial


 


     ii. _____to _____cm of the iliac crest


6 to 8


 


     iii. To avoid the s_____ c_____ nerves


superior cluneal


 


     iv. If injured, they cause b_____ n_____ or p_____ n_____


buttock numbness or painful neuromas


 


c. The “dimple of Venus” lies directly


 


G7 p.200:133mm


     i. above the s_____ joint.


sacro iliac


 


     ii. Incise a little _____to it.


lateral


 


     iii. Avoid mistaking the s_____


sacrum


 


     iv. and the i_____ s_____


iliac spine


 


Lumbar Punctures
































































































































































































80. Complete the following regarding lumbar punctures:


 


G7 p.201:175mm


a. For lumbar puncture (LP) the platelet count should be higher than_____.


50,000/mm3


 


b. In SAH, LP might increase the_____ pressure and precipitate aneurismal rupture.


transmural


G7 p.202:15mm


c. An LP in patients with spinal block may produce deterioration in as many as _____%.


14%


G7 p.202:25mm


81. The spinal cord ends at the given location for what percentage of adults?


 


G7 p.202:45mm


a. between T12 and L1


30%


 


b. between L1 and L2 middle thirds


51 to 68%


 


c. between L2 and L3


10%


 


d. between T12 and L2


94%


 


82. The intercristal line


 


G7 p.202:60mm


a. connects the superior border of the_____ _____


iliac crests


 


b. occurs in most adults between the spinous processes of _____ and _____


L4 and L5


 


83. Complete the following statements:


 


G7 p.202:95mm


a. When an LP is performed, we must always advance the needle with _____ _____ in place.


the stylet


 


b. Otherwise we may introduce_____ _____,


epidermal cells


 


c. which could produce an iatrogenic _____ _____.


epidermoid tumor


 


84. Describe the Queckenstedt test and expected results.


 


G7 p.202:180mm


a. What do you compress?


the jugular vein


 


b. One or both?


one then the other, while measuring ICP


 


c. If no block what will happen with compression?


pressure should rise 10 to 20 cm from baseline


 


d. If no block what happens upon release of compression


return to the original level within 10 seconds


 


e. If there is a block what will happen?


no rise in pressure from baseline


 


85. Complete the following about lumbar punctures:


 


G7 p.203:85mm


a. Incidence of severe postpuncture headache is _____%.


0.1 to 0.5%


 


b. Severe means_____.


lasting longer than 7 days


 


86. Complete the following about lumbar punctures:


 


G7 p.203:155mm


a. Can a sixth nerve (abducens nerve) palsy occur after lumbar puncture?


yes


 


b. If so when?


after 5 to 14 days


 


c. If it occurs when does it resolve?


4 to 6 weeks


 


87. True or False. Regarding fundus exam for papilledema:


 


G7 p.204:25mm


a. It is a reliable test to assure safety of LP.


false


 


b. It is an unreliable test.


true


 


c. It takes 6 to 24 hours for papilledema to occur.


true


 


d. A better test of safety would be a C_____s_____.


CT scan


 


88. True or False. If you suspect meningitis but cannot promptly get a CT scan


 


G7 p.204:85mm


a. you may do an LP without a CT scan


true (very small risk)


 


b. even if there is papilledema


true (risk is still low)


 


c. and if there are unequal pupils and/or hemiparesis


false (suggests an hemiparesis asymmetrical mass; do not do LP)


 


89. You suspect meningitis but cannot promptly get a CT scan. If the patient deteriorates during LP the anecdotal recommendation is to immediately ________ ________ ________.


replace the fluid


G7 p.204:85mm


90. True or False. The following may reduce the frequency of post-LP headache:


 


G7 p.204:135mm


a. Use a small-size needle.


true


 


b. Orient the bevel longitudinally.


true


 


c. Position the patient flat in bed.


false (not shown to be truly beneficial)


 


d. Remove only a little fluid.


false (not shown to be truly beneficial)


 


e. Replace the stylet before removing the needle.


true


 


f. Hydrate the patient after the LP.


false (not shown to be truly beneficial)


 


C1-C2 Punctures












91. What condition makes lateral cervical puncture contraindicated?


Chiari malformation


G7 p.205:125mm


Ventricular Catheterization












































92. True or False. Sites that may be used for ventricular catheterization are


 


G7 p.207:80mm


a. Keen point


true


 


b. Dandy point


true (but may injure visual pathways)


 


c. occipital-parietal region


true


 


d. Kocher point


true


 


93. Keen point


 


G7 p207:168mm


a. is about_____ cm superior to the PINNA


3


 


b. is about _____ cm posterior to the PINNA


3


 


c. places catheter into the_____


trigone


 


Ventriculostomy/ICP Monitors


































































94. True or False. The site most commonly used for ICP monitoring is


 


G7 p.207:180mm


a. occipitoparietal region


false


 


b. Frazier burr hole


false


 


c. Keen point


false


 


d. Dandy point


false


 


e. Kocher point


true (2 to 3 cm from midline, approximate midpupil line; 1 cm anterior to coronal suture; aim toward ipsilateral inner-canthus and external auditory canal)


 


95. Another technique:


Hint: Easy as 1-2-3


 


G7 p.208:72mm



Fig. 7.1


 


 


 


 


Illustration by Tony Pazos


a. Measure 12 cm up the midline from the_____.


nasion


 


b. Measure 3 cm to the_____.


right


 


c. This is the approximate site of _____ point.


Kocher


 


d. Drill opening, puncture dura, aim catheter medially toward ipsilateral _____ _____


medial canthus


 


e. on a plane halfway between the contralateral lateral canthus and external _____ _____.


auditory meatus


(Thanks to Dr. Thomas Stilp, Chicago)


Ventricular Shunts
































































96. List the layers to traverse in the placement of peritoneal catheter.


Hint: samp3


 


G7 p.210:20mm


a. s_____ _____


subcutaneous fat


 


b. a_____ _____


anterior sheath


 


c. m_____


muscle


 


d. p_____ _____


posterior sheath


 


e. p_____ _____


preperitoneal fat


 


f. p_____


peritoneum


 


97. Ventriculoatrial shunt should be revised when the catheter tip is above _____.


T4


G7 p.211:110mm


98. The needle to use in ommaya reservoir is a b_____ _____ or smaller gauge.


butterfly 25


G7 p.21 2:160mm


99. During third ventriculostomy


 


G7 p.213:70mm


a. The opening is made


 


 


     i. _____ to the mammillary bodies.


anterior


 


     ii. This site is _____ to the basilar artery.


anterior


 


b. After puncturing the floor be certain that the m_____ of L_____ is also perforated.


membrane of Liliequist


G7 p.213:100mm


Sural Nerve Biopsy








































































100. Nerve biopsy has a role in diagnosing the following:


Hint: aCdHmv


 


G7 p.214:125mm


a. a_____


amyloidosis


 


b. C_____-M_____-T_____


Charcot-Marie-Tooth


 


c. d_____a_____


diabetic amyotrophy


 


d. H_____d_____


Hansen disease


 


e. m_____l_____


metachromatic


leukodystrophy


 


f. v_____


vasculitis


 


101. Sural nerve biopsy


 


G7 p.214:153mm


a. At the level of the ankle the sural nerve


 


 


     i. lies between the_____tendon


Achilles


 


     ii. and the_____malleolus.


lateral


 


b. A tourniquet distends the_____ _____ vein.


lesser saphenous


 


c. To biopsy only a portion of the fascicles open the_____and tease out a few fascicles.


epineurium


 


d.


 


G7 p.215:115mm


     i. Sensory loss is_____


expected


 


     ii. but may not last more than a_____ _____.


a. few weeks


 


Nerve Blocks




























































































102. True or False. The following are risks of bilateral stellate ganglion block:


 


G7 p.215:170mm


a. glossopharyngeal nerve injury bilaterally


false


 


b. respiratory compromise


true


 


c. hypoglossal nerve injury bilaterally


false


 


d. bilateral laryngeal nerve injury


true (Glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal nerves are higher in the cervical region.)


 


103. The palpable landmark at C6 is called


 


G7 p.216:23mm


a. C_____ t_____


Chassaignac’s tubercle


 


b. also known as a_____ t_____ of t_____ p_____ of C_____


anterior tubercle; transverse process of C6


 


c. also known as_____ _____


carotid tubercle


 


104. True or False. The following are signs of a successful stellate ganglion block:


 


G7 p.216:40mm


a. unilateral vocal cord paralysis


false


 


b. hoarseness


false


 


c. unilateral Horner syndrome


true


 


d. upper extremity weakness from brachial plexus effect


false


 


e. increased warmth of ipsilateral hand


true


 


f. anhidrosis of the ipsilateral hand


true


 


105. Complete the following concerning the intercostal nerve block:


 


G7 p.216:115mm


a. A good site for injection is the p_____a_____l_____.


posterior axillary line


 


b. How many nerves need to be blocked to produce some anesthesia?


three


 


c. Why so many?


overlap


 


d. Order of structures from top down is _____ _____ _____ _____.(Hint: rvan)


rib, vein, artery, nerve


 


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Aug 6, 2016 | Posted by in NEUROSURGERY | Comments Off on Operations and Procedures

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