Questions



Questions







1. Which one of the following is generally TRUE of cognitive differences between men and women?


A. Women appear to have a slight advantage in mathematical calculations.


B. Men appear to have a slight advantage in fund of general information.


C. Women appear to have a slight advantage in select visual-perceptual and spatial tasks.


D. Men may show a minor advantage on select executive skills.


E. Men may show a minor advantage in speeded eye-hand coordination.

View Answer

B. Men and women display differences in cognitive skills. Men appear to have a slight advantage in mathematical calculations, fund of general information, and select visual-perceptual and spatial tasks, whereas women may show a minor advantage on rote verbal memory tasks, select executive skills, and speeded eye-hand coordination. These may become more pronounced with advancing age.



2. Which of the following statements regarding the development of the sleep-wake cycle throughout the lifespan is TRUE?


A. Latency age children have relatively greater amounts of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and high amplitude, slow-wave sleep.


B. Humans are born with an intact circadian sleep-wake rhythm.


C. Slow-wave sleep increases throughout adolescence.


D. Sleep efficiency during adulthood improves with age.


E. Diurnal sleep-wake patterns become more ingrained and consolidated with advancing age.

View Answer

A. Humans are born with an ultradian sleepwake pattern, which develops into a circadian rhythm during the first few years of life. Slow-wave sleep declines precipitously during adolescence, likely related to pruning phenomena. Sleep efficiency gradually declines through adulthood. In addition to lighter sleep, it becomes more fragmented with age, with a greater percentage of daytime naps. The incidence of insomnia and many sleep-wake disorders increases with age.



3. What defense mechanism is commonly utilized by patients with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?


A. Denial


B. Regression


C. Isolation of affect


D. Projection


E. All the above

View Answer

E. Isolation of affect, reaction formation, and undoing are common defense mechanisms utilized by patient with diagnosis of OCD. Isolation of affect is the unconscious process in which there is dissociation of affect from an impulse. If isolation of affect fails to control anxiety associated with a given impulse, patients with OCD resort to compulsive acts, which are unconscious attempts to neutralize anxiety. In reaction formation, patients exhibit attitudes that are diametrically opposite to underlying impulse. Denial is a narcissistic defense in which some painful aspects of reality are avoided, while regression is an attempt to return to an earlier libidinal stage of functioning to avoid conflict, it is an immature defense. These latter defenses are not commonly utilized in OCD. Denial is common in patients with substance-related disorders, and regression is frequently utilized by the severely mentally ill. Projection is an immature defense mechanism used by patients with Borderline Personality Disorder or psychotic illness.



4. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about giving confidential information about a patient’s psychiatric care to a third-party payer and their agents?


A. The psychiatrist does not need to talk to the third-party payer or their agents, as it is not their job.


B. The psychiatrist must obtain the patient’s specific consent to talk to the third-party payer or their agents.


C. The psychiatrist does not need the patient’s consent to talk to the third-party payer or their agents.


D. The psychiatrist must give all information regarding the patient’s care, as the patient has signed on to the specific insurance plan.


E. None of the above.

View Answer

B. Third-party payers and their agents may request data from psychiatric evaluations to make determinations about whether a hospital admission or a specific treatment will be covered by a particular insurance plan. When such information is requested the psychiatrist must obtain the patient’s consent for such communications. It is necessary to inform the patient about the specific information that has been requested and obtain specific consent for the release of that information. The psychiatrist may also withhold information about the patient not directly relevant to the utilization review or preauthorization decisions.



5. At a major, tertiary-care facility you are requested to provide psychiatric consultation for a 40-year-old gentleman who was admitted 2 days prior to the medical intensive care unit. He was found unconscious on the street and was brought to an emergency department (ED). He was thought to be intoxicated on alcohol. Psychiatry service was consulted because a few hours ago the patient started becoming agitated, was belligerent with the staff, and demanding to leave the hospital immediately. You were told by the medical team that there is limited history about the patient as he has not been able to provide a cohesive history and it has not been possible to contact anyone for collateral information. You meet with the patient and note that he is extremely agitated and during the course of the interview tells you to make the “little people in the corner of the room stop talking.” He further goes on to tell you that “if they must talk, not to call out his name and disturb him.” A few minutes later he appears slightly calmer and looks at you and asks you “who are you, what are you doing here?” After you make the appropriate pharmacologic recommendations, you proceed to write the note. While writing the mental status examination, particular attention must be paid to which of the following categories?


A. Appearance and mood


B. Behavior and thought process


C. Perception and behavior


D. Speech and mood


E. Appearance and thought content

View Answer

C. The mental status examination is the part of the clinical assessment that describes the sum total of the examiner’s observations and impressions of the psychiatric patient at the time of the interview. Hallucinations (visual, auditory, olfactory, or tactile) are described as perceptual abnormalities, as are feelings of depersonalization and derealization (extreme feeling of detachment from the self or the environment). Agitation is characterized as behavior in the general description of the patient. Other aspects that are included in this category include mannerisms, tics, gestures, stereotyped behavior, and psychomotor retardation.



6. A 27-year-old single woman presents to her primary care physician for an annual check-up. In the course of their conversation, she reveals that she has been struggling to complete her Master’s thesis over the past several years and is worried that she will soon be asked to leave the program. Each day when she attempts to make progress on the thesis, she is frequently overcome by the irresistible urge to sleep. She is afraid that she might be “going crazy,” as she sometimes sees figures in her apartment when she is awakening from sleep. During times of significant
stress (e.g., when presenting to her Master’s supervisory committee), she has felt suddenly weak and has narrowly averted falling to the ground. What is the term used in DSM-IV-TR to describe this patient’s experience of feeling “suddenly weak?”


A. Catatonia


B. Cataplexy


C. Catalepsy


D. Narcolepsy


E. Sleep paralysis

View Answer

B. Cataplexy is described in the DSM-IV-TR as brief episodes of sudden bilateral loss of muscle tone, most often in association with intense emotion. Cataplexy is present in approximately 50% of cases of Narcolepsy, a primary sleep disorder that consists of irresistible sleep attacks and one or both of cataplexy and abnormal manifestations of REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is an uncommon symptom that occurs most often upon awakening in the morning. During sleep paralysis, patients are apparently awake and conscious, but unable to move a muscle. In contrast, Catatonia can be seen in various psychiatric (and medical) disorders and is usually manifested by a combination of motoric immobility, excessive motor activity (which is apparently purposeless and not influenced by external stimuli), extreme negativism or mutism, peculiarities of voluntary movement, and echolalia/echopraxia. Catalepsy is a general term for an immobile position that is constantly maintained.



7. All of the following will enhance optimum treatment outcomes for a patient with Unipolar Depression EXCEPT:


A. Treatment adherence


B. Good therapeutic alliance


C. Lack of significant adverse effects of somatic treatment


D. Partial remission of symptoms


E. None of the above

View Answer

D. The goal of treatment for Unipolar Depression is the complete remission of symptoms. Partially remitted symptoms are powerful predictors of relapse. These findings have led to the hypothesis that residual symptoms upon recovery may progress to become prodromal symptoms of relapse.



8. Which one of the following is TRUE of the physiology of glutamate and the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor?


A. Glutamate is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS).


B. Glutamate excitotoxicity, mediated via excessive activation of NMDA receptors, is believed to play a role in neuronal death observed in several degenerative diseases, including Parkinson’s disease.


C. In Alzheimer’s disease (AD), excessive activation of NMDA receptors has been reported to cause increase in extracellular calcium ions, leading to a cascade of events that ultimately cause neurodegeneration.


D. Memantine acts as a high affinity competitive inhibitor of the NMDA receptor.


E. None of the above.

View Answer

B. Glutamate is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. Its physiologic and excitotoxic activities are mediated through stimulation of the NMDA receptor and result from the influx of calcium ions. Excitotoxicity is believed to play a role in the pathogenesis of several diseases, including Parkinson’s disease and AD. Several NMDA receptor antagonists have been described. PCP and MK-801 cause psychotomimetic side effects, due to their activities on the NMDA receptors. Memantine, approved by the FDA for the treatment of moderate to severe AD, is a noncompetitive NMDA receptor antagonist with moderate affinity that protects against excessive stimulation of the receptor while allowing normal physiologic activities unhindered.



9. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE of Nicotine Dependence in the United States?


A. An estimated 22.5% of adults (46 million Americans) are cigarette smokers.


B. The highest prevalence of smoking is among African-Americans.


C. Nicotine replacement therapies (e.g., gum, lozenges, nasal spray, inhaler, and transdermal) are United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved for the treatment of Nicotine Dependence.


D. Bupropion is FDA approved for the treatment of Nicotine Dependence.


E. Anxiolytic drug mecamylamine is FDA approved for the treatment of Nicotine Dependence.

View Answer

B. Cigarette use is the single most preventable cause of death in our society, causing 1 of every 5 deaths. By the 2004 estimate, about 22.5% of adults (46 million Americans) were cigarette smokers, with the highest prevalence among Native Americans and Alaska natives (40.8%); followed by whites (23.6%). Available data indicates that the use of pharmacotherapy by smokers in conjunction with behavioral modification can produce long-term abstinence at up to double the rate achieved by smokers without pharmacotherapy. Pharmacotherapies that have approved by the FDA for treatment of Nicotine Dependence include nicotine replacement therapies (e.g., gum, lozenges, nasal spray, inhaler, and transdermal), antidepressants (e.g., bupropion), and anxiolytic drugs (e.g., clonidine, nortriptyline, and mecamylamine), although anxiolytics have been used as second-line agents. Varenicline was approved by the FDA on May 11, 2006 for the treatment of Nicotine Dependence.



10. Which one of the following statements is TRUE of the pharmacological treatments for OCD?


A. Clomipramine has superior efficacy over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in the treatment of OCD.


B. SSRIs have more cardiotoxicity than clomipramine.


C. SSRIs are responsible for more asthenia, insomnia, and nausea than clomipramine.


D. SSRIs are more effective at relieving obsessional thoughts than compulsive rituals.


E. Clomipramine is considered the treatment of choice for OCD.

View Answer

C. The evidence is not strong enough to support superior efficacy of clomipramine over SSRIs. SSRIs have a better side effect profile compared to clomipramine resulting in improved acceptability and tolerability. In a comparator study, the drop-out rate from adverse effects on clomipramine (approx. 17%) was consistently higher than for paroxetine (9%). Clomipramine is associated with significantly more early withdrawals associated with side-effects than fluvoxamine. The risk of dangerous side effects such as convulsions (occurring in up to 2% on clomipramine, compared to 0.1% to 0.5% on high-dose SSRIs), cardiotoxicity, and cognitive impairment is substantially lower with SSRIs. Clomipramine is associated with dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision, and is lethal in overdose. All SSRIs are associated with impaired sexual performance, but clomipramine (80% cases) appears more problematic than SSRIs (up to 30% cases). SSRIs are responsible for more asthenia, insomnia, and nausea. Weight gain is more with clomipramine as compared to SSRIs. SSRIs are equally effective at relieving obsessional thoughts and compulsive rituals. Their improved safety and tolerability offer considerable benefits for the long-term treatment of OCD. SSRIs should usually be considered the treatments of choice, with clomipramine reserved for those who cannot tolerate or who have failed to respond to them.



11. Which of the following is TRUE of interventions for insomnia in middle-aged adults and older adults?


A. Cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) is superior to behavior therapy.


B. CBT is as good as behavior therapy.


C. CBT is superior to relaxation.


D. CBT is inferior to relaxation.


E. Relaxation is superior to behavior therapy.

View Answer

B. A recent meta-analysis supports the effectiveness of behavioral interventions for the treatment of insomnia in older patients. This meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (n=23), found cognitive-behavioral treatment, relaxation, and behavioral therapy to have similar effects. Both middle-aged and persons older than 55 years of age showed similar robust improvements in sleep quality, sleep latency, and wakening after sleep onset.



12. Which of the following is NOT an effective treatment for Nicotine Dependence?


A. Haloperidol


B. Bupropion


C. Nicotine replacement


D. Nortriptyline


E. Clonidine

View Answer

A. Bupropion, a dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, has been found to significantly improve abstinence from smoking. Nicotine gum, inhaler, nasal spray, and transdermal patch appear to be equally effective and approximately double the abstinence rates as compared to placebo. Both bupropion and nicotine replacement therapy has been approved by the FDA for Nicotine Dependence. Nortriptyline and clonidine are second-line medications for treatment of Nicotine Dependence and are not approved by the FDA. Several behavioral therapies including practical counseling (problem solving training, coping skills, and relapse prevention), intratreatment support (encourage patients to quit, and communicate care and concern), extratreatment support (encourage patient to solicit social support, and arrange outside support), and aversive smoking procedures (rapid smoking, rapid puffing) have been found to be effective in increasing abstinence from smoking compared to no-contact controls.



13. Which of the following drugs has the lowest risk of discontinuation syndrome, when abruptly discontinued?


A. Fluoxetine


B. Fluvoxamine


C. Paroxetine


D. Sertraline


E. Citalopram

View Answer

A. Fluoxetine has a half-life of about 4 to 6 days, therefore, has the lowest risk of discontinuation symptoms with abrupt discontinuation. The half-lives of other SSRIs (fluvoxamine: 15 hours, paroxetine: 21 hours, sertraline: 26 hours, and citalopram: 35 hours) are shorter. Therefore, sudden discontinuation of shorter-acting agents can result in anxiety, irritability, crying spells, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, lethargy, sleep disturbances, and flu-like symptoms.



14. Adverse effects of valproate include all of the following EXCEPT:


A. Constipation


B. Weight gain


C. Hair loss


D. Agranulocytosis


E. Hepatotoxicity

View Answer

A. Most frequent adverse effects associated with valproate are gastrointestinal effects (nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea) and neurological effects (tremors, sedation, and ataxia). It is also commonly associated with weight gain. Hair loss is usually transient, but total alopecia has been rarely associated with valproate therapy. Reversible thrombocytopenia may occur in the initial phase of valproate treatment. It often produces modest elevations of hepatic enzymes. On rare occasions, valproate may be associated with agranulocytosis, severe hepatotoxicity, and hemorrhagic pancreatitis. Unlike carbamazepine, it does not potentiate hepatic metabolism of concomitant drugs. It can cause neural tube defect with use in pregnancy. Hematologic and hepatic parameters should be regularly monitored in patients receiving valproate.



15. Who is best known for the theory of degeneration, which holds that a variety of psychiatric conditions get worse as they are passed from generation to generation?


A. Eugen Bleuler


B. Antoine Boyle


C. Benedict-Augustin Morel



D. Jean Etienne Dominique Esquirol


E. Ugo Cerletti

View Answer

C. Benedict-Augustin Morel (1809–1873) was a French psychiatrist who proposed an early version of biological psychiatry which held that mental illness is congenitally inherited and can be activated by the environment. Bleuler coined the term Schizophrenia, and introduced autism and ambivalence to the psychosis literature. Boyle suggested in 1826 that the general paresis (of syphilis) was an organic disease, which was not conclusively demonstrated until 1912. Esquirol expanded the theory of moral therapy, wrote an influential textbook, coined the concept of hallucination, and wrote a law detailing provisions for patient care. Cerletti and Lucio Bini developed electroshock therapy in 1938.



16. A 70-year-old white man with a history of malabsorption syndrome due to ileal resection now presents to a neurology clinic with a 1-year history of weakness in both legs. On examination, he is found to have impaired perception of position and vibration sense and extensor plantar response in both lower limbs. Given this history, which one of the following is NOT TRUE of his condition?


A. He has a myelopathy that involves the posterior and the lateral columns of the spinal cord in the cervical and upper thoracic region.


B. In this condition, involvement of the anterior column of spinal cord is very common.


C. Pathological changes in this condition include spongiform changes and foci of myelin and axon destruction in the spinal cord white matter.


D. He will subsequently develop loss of myelin sheath followed by axonal degeneration and gliosis.


E. All of the above.

View Answer

B. This patient has sub-acute combined degeneration of spinal cord. It is a neurologic manifestation of vitamin B12 deficiency and is characterized by a myelopathy that involves the posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord in the cervical and upper thoracic regions. The involvement of anterior columns of the spinal cord is rare. Pathological changes include spongiform changes and foci of myelin and axon destruction in the spinal cord white matter. There is also loss of myelin followed by axonal degeneration and gliosis. Clinical features include spastic paraparesis, extensor plantar response, and impaired perception of position and vibration. Symptoms usually start in the feet and are symmetric. Other neuropsychiatric manifestations include decreased memory, personality change, psychosis, and delirium. Majority of patients who develop vitamin B12 deficiency have pernicious anemia. It is also more common in the elderly and can be seen after gastric surgery, as well as with acid reduction therapy with H2-blockers. It may also be caused by malabsorption syndromes due to ileal disease or resection, bacterial overgrowth, and tropical sprue. Vitamin B12 deficiency is also seen in HIV-infected patients. Vitamin B12 deficiency can also occur in strict vegetarians. This phenomenon is usually rare and the consequences of this deficiency are often mild and subclinical. Clinical manifest disease occurs only when poor intake begins in childhood.



17. Which of the following is a possible application of polymerase chain reaction (PRC) in clinical and experimental settings?


A. Genetic fingerprinting


B. Paternity testing


C. Detection of hereditary disease


D. Gene cloning


E. All of the above

View Answer

E. The technique of PRC has a wide range of applications in diagnostic, experimental, and forensic settings. In genetic fingerprinting, for example, an accused may either be virtually placed on a crime scene or excluded as a suspect by comparing DNA from a crime scene with his or her sample. Given that the crime scene sample may contain a tiny amount of DNA, the task is accomplished by first fragmenting the sample from the crime scene and then amplifying these fragments by several magnitudes. By utilizing several genetic fingerprints, the relationship between parent and child may be established in a paternity case. Using the methods of gene amplification and sequencing, disease causing mutations can be detected in a given genome. Gene cloning is another potential use of PCR. This utilizes gene engineering and amplification.



18. Which one of the following statements is TRUE of movement disorders caused by dopamine-receptor blocker (DRB) drugs?


A. Acute dystonic reactions usually occur after a week of treatment with these drugs.


B. Young women are at a particularly high risk of developing dystonias from these drugs.


C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome may occur at any time during treatment with DRB.


D. Akathisia usually occurs within the first 24 hours of treatment with these drugs.


E. All of the above.

View Answer

C. Drug-induced movement disorders are mainly caused by DRB that are used as antipsychotics (neuroleptics) and antiemetics. Acute dystonic reactions usually occur within the first 4 days of treatment with these drugs. Usually, cranial, pharyngeal, and cervical muscles are affected. Young men are at a particularly high risk of developing this disorder. The use of anticholinergics produces a prompt relief in symptoms. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare, but life-threatening, adverse reaction to DRB, which may occur at any time during treatment with DRB. It is characterized by hyperthermia, rigidity, reduced consciousness, and autonomic failure. Therapeutically immediate DRB withdrawal is crucial. Additional dantrolene or bromocriptine application together with symptomatic treatment may be necessary. Akathisia is also a common side effect of DRB, and is characterized by exceedingly bothersome feeling of restlessness and the inability to remain still. It usually occurs within a few days after the initiation of treatment with DRB and subsides when the DRB is discontinued.



19. Which one of the following has NOT shown to be a predictor of successful aging?


A. High education


B. Social class


C. Maintenance of appropriate weight


D. Regular exercise


E. Absence of depression

View Answer

B. The new paradigm in gerontology views aging not as an inevitable deterioration, but one that includes the potential for development and growth. Recent studies examining both objective and subjective indicators of successful aging found that only 10% of the sample could be classified as “successfully aged” when based on objective criteria that included quantitative assessments of physical, cognitive, and social functioning and measures of well being. However, when successful aging was defined as a subjective sense of having adapted well to the demands of life, many more individuals could be classified as having aged successfully. Recent research studies determining predictors of successful aging indicate that high education, absence of alcohol abuse and cigarette smoking, absence of depression, maintenance of appropriate weight, regular exercise, and social support are all predictors of successful aging. Social class, however, does not appear to be an important predictor for successful aging.



20. Which of the following regarding the zeitgeber (“timekeeper”) melatonin is NOT TRUE?


A. Melatonin is secreted in the pineal gland and the retina.


B. Circulating melatonin levels are greatest during the night.


C. Melatonin is required for sleep in humans.


D. Melatonin levels generally decline with age.


E. Melatonin release by the pineal gland is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

View Answer

C. Melatonin is a hormone chemical produced and secreted by the pineal gland, and in smaller amounts by the retina. Melatonin levels in the CSF may be up to twenty times greater than serum levels. Its levels increase in the evenings, and decrease during the day. Melatonin is not required for sleep in humans, and without it (e.g., removal of the pineal gland) there may be little change in the sleep-wake cycle. Regardless, it is an important hormone in synchronizing the onset of sleep and environmental light signals. Although melatonin production generally declines with age, how such a decline occurs is debated. Some say it occurs gradually, and others say there is a large decline in adolescence, and again with the CNS degeneration of advancing age. Release of melatonin is via a complex multisynaptic system regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus, and culminates in noradrenergic projections from the superior cervical ganglion to pinealocytes.



21. The parents of a 3-year-old girl were walking in a park, pushing the child in her stroller, when she began to cry inconsolably. After ascertaining that she was not in any physical danger, her father noticed that her stuffed rabbit was missing. The child was very attached to the stuffed animal, taking it with her everywhere, and would have a temper tantrum when it was taken away to be washed. From the perspective of psychoanalytic theory, the stuffed rabbit is a transitional object. Which of the following authors first described the concept of the transitional object?


A. Anna Freud


B. Wilfred Bion


C. Otto Kernberg


D. D.W. Winnicott


E. Melanie Klein

View Answer

D. The transitional object is a blanket, pacifier, song, or other object that a child uses to comfort herself when separated from her parents, such as a “security blanket.” The concept was put forth by Winnicott, a pediatrician and psychoanalyst of the British object relations school, who theorized that the transitional object was a representation of the object of the original relationship (mother or breast), and provides a transition from the physical relationship with the original object, to a physical relationship with the transitional object, to a symbolic representation of the original object. The transitional object is used as a defense against anxiety, frequently when the child is going to sleep.



22. Which one of the following need NOT be demonstrated in order to prove psychiatric malpractice?


A. A doctor-patient relationship existed, creating a duty of care


B. The doctor has a history of prior malpractice claims


C. A deviation from the standard of care occurred


D. The patient was damaged


E. Deviation from the standard of care caused damage

View Answer

B. A history of prior malpractice claims is not needed to prove malpractice. The elements of a malpractice claim are called the four Ds: duty, deviation, damage, and direct causation.



23. When documenting a mental status examination of a patient all of the following features may be used to describe the thought process EXCEPT:


A. Flight of ideas


B. Loosening of association


C. Circumstantiality


D. Delusions


E. Tangentiality

View Answer

D. Delusions are described as thought content and not as process of thought. Flight of ideas, loosening of association, circumstantiality, along with thought blocking, word salad, clang associations, punning, and neologism are all used to describe abnormalities in thought process.



24. Which of the following is a characteristic of Type A Alcohol Dependence?


A. Late onset


B. Numerous childhood risk factors


C. Severe alcohol dependence


D. Strong family history of alcohol abuse


E. Significant comorbid psychopathology

View Answer

A. Various researchers have attempted to divide Alcohol Dependence into subtypes based primarily on phenomenological characteristics. One relatively recent classification denotes Type A Alcohol Dependence as characterized by a late onset, few childhood risk factors, relatively mild dependence, few alcohol-related problems, and little psychopathology. In contrast, Type B Alcohol Dependence is characterized by many childhood risk factors, severe dependence, an early onset of alcohol-related problems, much psychopathology, a strong family history of alcohol abuse, frequent polysubstance abuse, a long history of alcohol treatment, and a high number of severe life stresses. Some research has suggested that patients with Type A Alcohol Dependence may respond better to interactional psychotherapies, whereas patients with Type B Alcohol Dependence may respond better to coping skills training.



25. Which one of the following is the peak age for the incidence of traumatic brain injury (TBI)?


A. 4- to 5-year-olds



B. 15- to 25-year olds


C. 25- to 35-year olds


D. 35- to 45-year olds


E. All of the above

View Answer

B. Over a million Americans sustain TBIs every year, making it a leading cause of morbidity and mortality. TBI exhibits a bimodal age frequency. It is more prevalent in people between the ages of 15 to 25 years and those 75 years and older. While motor vehicle accidents account for a large proportion of TBI in younger people, a majority of elderly patients sustain TBI by way of falls.



26. A 32-year-old white woman is referred to you for a psychiatric evaluation. During the initial visit the patient reports that she has noticed that she is “worried a lot lately.” She goes on to describe that she has always been a “worrier,” but over the past year, it has been getting worse. She is the vice president of a banking company and is well liked by her colleagues. However, she is very fearful that she would potentially lose her job and would never be able to find another job. Recently, these worries have been preoccupying her and she has been having difficulty concentrating at work. She has also been feeling very tired, restless, and has had difficulty sleeping. She has tried taking vitamin supplements, drinking tea, and taking deep breaths to combat some of these symptoms. When this was not alleviating the symptoms, she made an appointment to see her primary care physician. A complete medical workup was noncontributory. Given this history, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms?


A. Malingering


B. Acute Mania


C. Schizophrenia


D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)


E. Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

View Answer

D. DSM-IV-TR criteria for GAD include excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities occurring more days than not for at least 6 months. The person finds it difficult to control the worry. The anxiety and worry are associated with three (or more) of the following six symptoms (with at least some symptoms present for more days than not for the past 6 months): restlessness, being easily fatigued, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. The focus of the anxiety and worry is not confined to features of an axis I disorder. The anxiety, worry, or physical symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The disturbance is not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g., a drug of abuse, a medication) or a general medical condition (e.g., hypothyroidism) and does not occur exclusively during a mood disorder, a psychotic disorder, or a pervasive developmental disorder.



27. A 45-year-old woman comes to your office for an initial evaluation. She is wearing a bright, pink dress with matching shoes, as well as big, white sunglasses and a yellow scarf. She reports a long standing history of having constant problems in her work because she thinks that her boss pays more attention to her coworkers than to herself. She talks about many very intense and close friendships, although she only met most of these friends a few months ago. During the interview she keeps eye contact and seductively smiles. Which of the following criteria is NOT included in the diagnosis of this patient’s disorder as per the DSM-IV-TR criteria?


A. Patients display rapidly shifting and shallow expressions of emotion.


B. Patients are uncomfortable in situations in which they are not the center of attention.


C. Patients often interact with inappropriate sexually seductive or provocative behavior.


D. Patients are easily influenced by others.


E. Patients require excessive admiration.

View Answer

E. Patients with Histrionic Personality Disorder have pervasive and excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior. The following are the DSM-IV-TR criteria for the diagnosis of this personality disorder: (a) these individuals are uncomfortable in situations in which they are not the center of attention, (b) they often exhibit inappropriate sexually seductive or provocative behaviors, (c) they display rapidly shifting and shallow expressions of emotions and consistently use physical appearance to draw attention to self, (d) they have a style of speech that is excessively impressionistic and lacking in detail, (e) they show self-dramatization and exaggerated expression of emotion, and (f) others easily influence them, and they consider relationships to be more intimate than they actually are. Furthermore, patients with Narcissistic Personality Disorder require excessive admiration from others.



28. Which one of the following statements is TRUE of the treatment of OCD?


A. CBT is recommended as the first-line treatment for children and adolescents.


B. CBT can be offered as first-line treatment for adults with OCD.


C. Pharmacotherapy can be offered as first-line treatment for adults with OCD.


D. The superiority of pharmacotherapy combined with CBT being superior to either treatment modality is controversial.


E. All of the above.

View Answer

E. The available evidence indicates that psychological and drug treatments appear to be equally effective for children, adolescents, and adults. CBT is recommended as the first-line treatment for children and adolescents, because of the assumption that it has fewer risks than SSRIs. For adults, CBT or pharmacotherapy can be offered as first-line treatments. There is still uncertainty as to whether pharmacotherapy combined with CBT is superior to either treatment modality provided alone.



29. Management of Opioid Intoxication involves which of the following?


A. Intravenous (IV) access and fluids


B. Ventilatory support


C. Support of cardiac function


D. Parenteral naloxone


E. All of the above

View Answer

E. Management of Opioid Intoxication involves general supportive measures, as well as institution of the specific antidote, naloxone. An adequate airway is established, and respiratory and cardiac functions are assessed and maintained. IV access is essential for fluids and nutrition. Naloxone hydrochloride, a pure opioid antagonist, is used to reverse the CNS effects of opioid intoxication. An initial IV dose of 0.4 to 0.8 mg is administered to counteract neurologic and cardiorespiratory depression. The onset of action of intravenously administered naloxone is approximately 2 minutes. The subcutaneous route has been found to be equally effective since the slower rate of absorption via this route is offset by the delay in establishing IV access. Overdose with opioids that are more potent, such a fentanyl or longer acting agents like methadone, require higher doses of naloxone administered over prolonged periods.



30. Which one of the following tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) shows the most biochemical selectivity?


A. Imipramine


B. Desipramine


C. Amitriptyline


D. Clomipramine


E. Doxepin

View Answer

B. TCAs derive their name from their three-ring structure. The tertiary amine tricyclic compounds, such as amitriptyline and imipramine, have two methyl groups at the end of the side chain. These compounds are demethylated to secondary amines, such as desipramine and nortriptyline. The tertiary amines are more potent as inhibitors of serotonin reuptake, and the secondary amines are more potent than norepinephrine inhibitors. The TCAs also possess cholinergic and histaminergic receptor blocking property. Desipramine is the most biochemically selective compound that blocks norepinephrine reuptake, and is unlikely to affect serotonin reuptake. Additionally, desipramine has little affinity for muscarinic-cholinergic, histaminergic, and α1-adrenergic receptors. The tetracyclic compounds, maprotiline and amoxapine, have a four-ring structure.



31. Which of the following is a selective norepinephrine-reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)?


A. Bupropion


B. Imipramine


C. Reboxetine


D. Sertraline


E. None of the above

View Answer

C. Reboxetine is an SNRI that has been shown to be effective for the treatment of major depression. It is rapidly absorbed after oral administration, and is metabolized by P450 isoenzyme 3A4. It is generally well tolerated, and has fewer side effects (dry mouth, constipation, and other anticholinergic side effects) as compared to the TCAs. Reboxetine does not adversely affect the cardiac conduction, and is safer in overdose. Atomoxetine is another SNRI that has shown efficacy in the treatment of ADHD. Among TCAs, desipramine is the most biochemically selective compound that blocks norepinephrine reuptake. Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor, imipramine is a tricyclic agent, and sertraline is an SSRI.



32. Which one of the following statements is TRUE of anticonvulsant mood stabilizers?


A. Controlled studies have shown efficacy of gabapentin in Bipolar Disorder.


B. Lamotrigine acts at voltage-sensitive calcium channels.


C. Valproate increases the metabolism of lamotrigine.


D. Topiramate has been confirmed to be an effective mood stabilizer.


E. All of the above.

View Answer

B. Controlled studies have not confirmed the efficacy of gabapentin or topiramate as effective mood stabilizers. Lamotrigine has been found to be effective in treating both mania and depression. It acts at voltage-sensitive sodium channels, and inhibits the presynaptic release of glutamate and aspartate. Most common side effects of lamotrigine include ataxia, dizziness, headache, diplopia, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, and rash. Lamotrigine does not cause weight gain. It is rarely associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Valproate inhibits the metabolism of lamotrigine, and carbamazepine and phenobarbitone enhance its metabolism.



33. Which of the following is NOT included in the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criteria for Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)?


A. Increased energy


B. Markedly depressed mood


C. Increased anxiety


D. Persistent anger or irritability


E. Difficulty concentrating

View Answer

A. PMDD is characterized by lethargy and easy fatigability. Other symptoms of PMDD include depressed mood, increased anxiety, difficulty concentrating, and persistent anger or irritability.




34. A 50-year-old white woman with a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection now presents to a neurology clinic with a 6-month history of weakness in both legs. On examination, she is found to have impaired perception of position and vibration sense, and extensor plantar response in both lower limbs. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and spinal cord shows a signal change in the subcortical white matter and posterior and lateral columns. There is also contrast enhancement involving the dorsal or lateral columns in the spinal cord. Given this history, which one of the following is NOT TRUE of the diagnostic tests for the cause of her symptoms?


A. Serum vitamin B12 level determination is the mainstay for evaluating vitamin B12 status.


B. Serum vitamin B12 measurement has technical and interpretive problems and lacks sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency.


C. Falsely elevated vitamin B12 levels may be seen with pregnancy, or with oral contraceptive and anticonvulsant use.


D. Levels of serum methylmalonic acid (MMA) and plasma total homocysteine are elevated in vitamin B12 deficiency.


E. The specificity of elevated MMA level is greater than the specificity of elevated plasma homocysteine level in vitamin B12 deficiency.

View Answer

C. This patient has sub-acute, combined degeneration of spinal cord, a neurologic manifestation of vitamin B12 deficiency, which is characterized by a myelopathy that involves the posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord in the cervical and upper thoracic regions. The involvement of anterior columns of the spinal cord is rare. Pathological changes include spongiform changes and foci of myelin and axon destruction in the spinal cord white matter. There is also loss of myelin followed by axonal degeneration and gliosis. Majority of patients who develop vitamin B12 deficiency have pernicious anemia. It is also more common in the elderly, after gastric surgery, with H2-blockers therapy, malabsorption syndromes, bacterial overgrowth, and tropical sprue. Clinical features include spastic paraparesis, extensor plantar response, and impaired perception of position and vibration. Symptoms usually start in the feet and are symmetric. Serum vitamin B12 level determination is the mainstay for evaluating vitamin B12 status. Serum vitamin B12 measurement has technical and interpretive problems, and it lacks sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency. Low levels may often be seen in pregnancy, with oral contraceptive or anticonvulsant use, with transcobalamine deficiency, with folate deficiency, in association with HIV infection, and in multiple myeloma. Falsely elevated vitamin B12 levels may be seen with renal failure, liver disease, and myeloproliferative disorders. Levels of serum MMA and plasma total homocysteine are useful ancillary diagnostic tests for vitamin B12 deficiency. MMA is a byproduct of methylmalonyl-CoA and it accumulates in vitamin B12 deficiency. Its specificity is superior to that of plasma homocysteine in vitamin B12 deficiency.



35. A 55-year-old Vietnam War veteran has been recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. He is referred to your consultation liaison service because of “anxiety” symptoms. You are told that he is being considered for interferon alpha therapy. On examination he says he is worried about “all possible psychiatric side effects of interferon treatment.” Patients with hepatitis C virus infection are at the greatest risk for which of the following psychiatric disorder?


A. Antisocial Personality Disorder


B. Depressive Disorders


C. Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)


D. Anxiety Disorders


E. Somatoform Disorders

View Answer

B. Hepatitis C virus infection has been associated with depression independent of therapeutic complications. Personality Disorders, Anxiety and Somatization Disorders are no more prevalent in hepatitis patients than in the general population. Interferon-α is a cytokine host defense protein and immune modulator. Produced by lymphocytes, it is indicated for the treatment of hepatitis C, melanoma, and renal cell carcinoma. Interferon-α therapy is associated with a variety of psychiatric symptoms. For example, some studies indicate depression rates as high as 40%. Other less well documented neuropsychiatric symptoms include poor concentration, memory deficits, anxiety, and rarely psychosis. Treatment emergent depression is a frequent reason for premature termination of INF therapy. There is evidence suggesting well defined risk factors for the development of depression in these patients. Dose and duration of INF therapy and pretreatment depressive symptoms, particularly mild depression, have been shown to be risk factors for INF-induced depression. Age, gender, and history of substance use have not been shown to impact this risk. Depression occurring in INF-treated patients typically becomes evident and peaks at week 4 and week 24, respectively. Although there are studies suggesting that prophylactic antidepressant therapy may lead to significant reduction in depression rates among patients undergoing INF therapy, this mode of intervention is currently not approved by the FDA nor is it routine standard of care.



36. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE of drug induced akathisia?


A. Acute akathisia develops in 20% to 40% of patients receiving DRB.


B. In 75% of patients, acute akathisia develops within three days after therapy initiation with DRB.


C. It is usually more common in older patients.


D. It may be caused by serotonin reuptake inhibitors.


E. It may be caused by cocaine.

View Answer

C. Akathisia is the Greek word for the inability to sit down. It is one of the most common movement disorders induced by DRB. Patients often suffer from a feeling of restlessness and the inability to remain still. Objectively, they present with increased motor activity, consisting of complex, semi-purposeful, stereotypic, and repetitive movements. They have the urge to move. Acute akathisia develops in 20% to 40% of patients receiving DRB. In 75% of patients acute akathisia develops within three days after therapy initiation. There are direct correlation between the potency of the neuroleptics, the neuroleptic dose and the rate of dosage increase, and the risk and severity of akathisia. There is no age or gender predisposition to developing akathisia. Acute akathisia usually tends to continue for as long as the neuroleptic medication is maintained and subsides shortly after cessation of treatment. It is very bothersome to the patients and often limits the patient’s compliance. Anticholinergics, amantadines, and benztropines may be helpful as may be clonazepam and clonidine. Acute akathisia may also be caused by serotonergic agents, SSRIs, or cocaine.



37. Which one of the following is considered an absolute contraindication for receiving an MRI?


A. The patient is pregnant.


B. The patient requires ventilation.


C. The patient has an implanted cardiac pacemaker or defibrillator.


D. The patient has a newer, weakly ferromagnetic prosthetic heart valve.


E. The patient has a nonferrous, metal joint prosthesis.

View Answer

C. Currently, implantation of cardiac pacemakers, defibrillators, and brain and spinal cord stimulators are all considered absolute contraindications to undergoing an MRI, because the strong magnets may induce unwanted currents in these devices. Ventilation may be performed by hand or by non-ferromagnetic machines. Newer, weakly ferromagnetic heart valves, access ports, and aneurysm clips are typically not a problem with MRI. Joint prostheses, even metal ones (as long as they are not significantly ferromagnetic), are typically okay for MRI. Some animal studies have reported the development of cataracts in fetuses exposed to MRI in utero. Human studies have not borne this out, and when the situation warrants, MRI may be performed on a pregnant patient.



38. All of the following are TRUE of Marchiafava-Bignami disease EXCEPT:


A. It is caused by demyelinating lesions in the corpus callosum.


B. It is rapidly progressive and fatal.


C. It is associated with alcohol abuse.


D. It can cause depression, mania, paranoia, and dementia may be present.


E. Seizures are uncommon in this disorder.

View Answer

E. Marchiafava-Bignami disease is a demyelinating condition of the corpus callosum. It presents with rapidly progressive neurologic symptoms and ends fatally within a few months. It is specifically associated with alcoholism. Psychiatric manifestations include depression, mania, paranoia, and dementia predominate. Seizures are common, and hemiparesis, aphasia, dyskinesia, and ataxia are variably present.



39. Which of the following is TRUE of the neuropsychiatric manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency?


A. Neurologic manifestations may be the earliest and only manifestation of vitamin B12 deficiency.


B. These patients may present with a myelopathy with or without an associated neuropathy.


C. The severity of the hematologic and neurologic manifestations may be inversely related in a particular patient.


D. Relapses in the illness are often associated with the same neurologic phenotype.


E. All of the above.

View Answer

E. Neurologic manifestations may be the earliest and often the only manifestation of vitamin B12 deficiency. The neurologic manifestations of this deficiency include a myelopathy with or without an associated neuropathy, cognitive dysfunction, optic neuropathy, and paresthesias without abnormal signs. Studies have also demonstrated that the severity of the hematologic and neurologic manifestations may be inversely related in a particular patient. Relapses in the illness are usually associated with the same neurologic phenotype.



40. A 45-year-old unemployed Gulf War veteran is referred by his primary care physician for evaluation of this patient’s complaints of “difficult to manage pain.” His pain involves the right lower leg and foot. He describes persistent burning pain superimposed on irritating numbness. You are told of a healed minor fracture occurring several months before. On examination, his right leg is atrophic, smooth, and shiny, and the left leg appears normal. He goes to great length to protect the affected area and does not allow physical examination on account of “unbearable pain.” You make a diagnosis of complex regional pain syndrome (reflex sympathetic dystrophy) and tell the referring physician all the following EXCEPT:


A. Treatment consists of adjuvant medications, blockade of regional sympathetic ganglion, and physical therapy.


B. Symptoms may include tremors and other involuntary movements.



C. This patient may develop similar symptoms on the left leg.


D. Nerve damage is often described.


E. The pain is disproportionately greater than the injury would suggest.

View Answer

D. Complex regional pain syndrome is an emerging diagnostic entity comprising reflex sympathetically mediated pain, regional sympathetic dystrophy (RSD) and causalgia. Autonomic dysfunction, disproportionate pain and soft tissue alteration are the common factors underlying these entities. Precipitating injuries are largely minor but may include fractures, peripheral vascular disease, and gun shot wounds. Of these entities, RSD is the commonest. It is not associated with direct nerve damage and treatment consists of blockade of regional sympathetic nerve ganglion, physical therapy, and adjunctive medications. An interesting phenomenon in RSD is pain extending far beyond the precipitating injury, as in this case. The most commonly used agents to treat this condition include anticonvulsants, antidepressants, steroids, biphosphates, and opiates, but they have not been adequately studied in the treatment of complex regional pain syndrome. All these agents should be used in conjunction with a comprehensive interdisciplinary approach aimed at functional restoration and improved quality of life of the patient.



41. A 31-year old woman has been suffering from multiple sclerosis (MS) for 8 years. She has not developed any severe symptoms in the past 3 years. She recently got married and is contemplating pregnancy. She asked about what to expect and is concerned about a future child’s risk of developing MS. Which of the following would you tell her about the relationship between pregnancy and MS?


A. Pregnancy has a protective effect from developing an MS exacerbation, and not to worry as MS is not heritable.


B. Pregnancy will not worsen her MS, but her child will likely also develop MS, as it is highly heritable.


C. Childbirth may provoke postpartum episodes by exacerbating her MS, and her child would have an increased risk of developing MS.


D. Pregnancy increases her risk of developing an MS episode, though her child will only be at risk for future MS if she develops an exacerbation during the first trimester.


E. Pregnancy may provoke an MS exacerbation in her, but her child will not be at an increased risk for developing MS.

View Answer

C. Her child is at increased risk of developing MS as there is a genetic susceptibility for developing MS. Monozygotic twins have a greater than 30% concordance rate for developing MS while dizygotic twins have 4% to 5% concordance rates. Environmental factors also play a significant role in development of MS. Spending your childhood in cool temperate latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere increases the risk of developing MS. Pregnancy can precipitate an MS episode especially in the first 3 postpartum months. MS is not known to increase the risk of obstetric complications, fetal malformations, or spontaneous abortions. Exacerbations of MS in pregnancy are not believed to affect outcome of the fetus. Pregnancy also does not affect the long-term outcome or prognosis of MS.



42. A 19-year old man with a history of heart disease presents to the emergency room (ER) after developing trouble walking. On examination, his feet are noted to be very high arching. Some of his younger siblings also have similar feet, along with difficulty walking. He raises his knees high when taking steps. Given this information, what do you think is the mode of inheritance for his condition?


A. Poly-genetic


B. Autosomal recessive with trinucleotide repeat


C. Autosomal dominant


D. Sex-linked


E. Spontaneous mutation

View Answer

B. Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal, recessive disorder of trinucleotide repeats that presents in late childhood. This condition should be distinguished from the spinocerebellar degenerations or types of spinocerebellar ataxias (SCAs), which are transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion with trinucleotide repeat expansion on various chromosomes. Some consider the pes cavus foot deformity pathognomonic (high arch, elevated first dorsum, and retracted first metatarsal) of Friedreich’s ataxia. Another feature of Friedreich’s ataxia is that it is often associated with cardiomyopathy and posterior column sensory deficits. A “steppage gait” of raising the feet high is common in Friedreich’s and other ataxias associated with damage to posterior column of the spinal cord. His younger siblings are at risk to develop his symptoms later on in their lives.



43. A 55-year-old man, a nonsmoker, develops ataxia of the legs that spreads to the upper extremities and face. After years, he develops some symptoms of parkinsonism. An MRI of the brain shows marked atrophy of medullary olivary nuclei. There is no family history of similar problems. He is healthy, without any evidence of anemia, cardiovascular, or spinal problems. Given this history, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his condition?


A. Malignancy


B. Friedreich’s ataxias


C. Olivopontocerebellar atrophy


D. Stroke


E. Parkinson’s disease

View Answer

C. Olivopontocerebellar atrophy may be familial (sometimes autosomal dominant or recessive) or sporadic. They often present in the 40s. The sporadic form is more common, and presents at a younger age. Progressive ataxias, often beginning in the lower limbs, may develop into parkinsonism in half the cases. It may be related to multiple system atrophy in some cases. Pathologically there is extensive degeneration in middle cerebellar peduncles, cerebellar white matter, and specific nuclei (pontine, olivary, and arcuate). This may be secondary to myelin degeneration. Other associated features may include retinal degeneration, spastic paraplegia, areflexia, dementia, ophthalmoplegia, neuropathies, and dystonias. Lesions to olivary nuclei are characteristic of olivopontocerebellar atrophy. Friedreich’s ataxia is a more common hereditary form of ataxia, and it presents earlier and with different associated findings. Lack of cardiac and spinal problems makes the diagnosis of Friedreich’s ataxia less likely. Stroke could present similarly, but the patient is healthy and without evidence of vascular disease. It would also be unusual to have a lesion specific to the olivary nuclei presenting with progressive ataxia. Parkinson’s disease does not typically present with prominent ataxia. No tumors are seen on MRI, and paraneoplastic ataxias are more common in women with ovarian and breast cancers.



44. Which of the following is a side effect of topiramate?


A. Priapism


B. Renal stones


C. Hepatic adenoma


D. Respiratory acidosis


E. Coma

View Answer

B. Topiramate is a new anticonvulsant drug that has been used for both partial and generalized seizures. It can precipitate renal stones in patients taking the medication. It has also been associated with hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis and angle-closure glaucoma. It can produce rashes, especially when used with valproic acid. This medication has not been commonly associated with priapism, hepatic adenomas, or coma.



45. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE of social supports in the elderly?


A. Those individuals with strong social supports appear to have better outcomes than those who are isolated.


B. The elderly have reduced social networks and frequency of social contacts, as compared to younger adults.


C. Although overall social contacts decrease in late life, it is only contact with family and close friends that decreases significantly.


D. Older adults with nuclear family members tended to have social networks that are both larger and more emotionally close.


E. Social structure of the oldest-old indicates that most individuals over the age of 85 have at least one surviving relative.

View Answer

C. Given equivalent stressors, those individuals with strong social supports appear to have better outcomes than those who are isolated or those who perceive that support is unavailable or unhelpful from those in their social network. The elderly have reduced social networks and the frequency of their social contacts as compared to younger adults. This is true for the oldest-old, whose social networks have been shown to be one half the size of the young-old. For many older adults, this reduction in social contact is not voluntary and may be more related to disability and reduced mobility than preference. Although overall social contacts decrease in late life, it is only contact with acquaintances and other peripheral individuals that decreases significantly. Social contacts with very close friends and family remain stable, and older adults’ satisfaction with these close relationships remains high. Older adults with nuclear family members tended to have social networks that were both larger, as well as more emotionally close, than older adults without nuclear family. However, those without nuclear family report greater feelings of closeness to friends than those with nuclear family, suggesting that older adults can adapt to the absence of family by creating satisfying relationships with others. Recent studies of the social structure of the oldest-old indicate that most individuals over the age of 85 have at least one surviving relative, but approximately one fourth had little or no contact with that relative. For the oldest-old the family, especially adult children, appears to play a crucial role in providing social support.



46. Which of the following circadian changes in hormone metabolism is NOT TRUE?


A. Growth hormone increases with sleep onset.


B. Sleep onset reduces the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and cortisol.


C. Cortisol levels increase toward the morning.


D. Prolactin hormone levels decrease during sleep.


E. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels decrease after sleep onset.

View Answer

D. Many hormones have a diurnal pattern. Prolactin levels usually increase during the sleep period, as do luteinizing hormones (especially in adolescents). Growth hormone has a similar pattern. TSH has a different pattern, with increased levels in the evening hours, which decrease after sleep onset. Cortisol production usually decreases at night, and increases toward morning. This pattern may be disrupted by depression.



47. A 26-year old automobile mechanic sought treatment for “obsessive thoughts” that were interfering with his ability to function at work. Over the past year, he had developed an extensive ritual that he had to perform before he could move to a new task, including checking to make sure all of the lug nuts were securely tightened nine times on each wheel of the car he was working on, no matter which part of the car was being serviced. On discussing the obsessive thoughts that led to his compulsive checking and counting, he stated that he had to check everything or the occupants of the car would have a fatal auto accident the day after the car was repaired. Given this information, which of the following defense mechanisms do you think that the patient is using to reduce his anxiety?



A. Splitting


B. Undoing


C. Reaction formation


D. Sublimation


E. Projective identification

View Answer

B. Also called “doing and undoing,” undoing is a defense mechanism employed to essentially attempt to reverse unconscious hostile wishes by recreating and “re-writing” a situation, to remove the aggressive thoughts before they are enacted. In this case, obsessive thoughts about the driver of the car being killed in an accident lead the man to perform an elaborate ritual to maintain the driver’s safety. From a psychoanalytic perspective, the auto mechanic’s behavior could be interpreted as a defense against unconscious impulses to cause harm to the driver by performing an action (loosening the lug nuts) that must then be “undone.” Splitting is a primitive defense mechanism that results in division of good and bad aspects of an object into two separate objects, allowing the patient to avoid the ambivalent conflict of maintaining contradictory aspects of an object together. Reaction formation refers to a defense mechanism in which the person acts in a way diametrically opposed to their inner wishes, such as being excessively friendly to a person he dislikes. In sublimation, unconscious urges are partially expressed in a socially acceptable way, such as the channeling of aggressive impulses to competitive sports. Projective identification is a complicated form of primitive defense, in which the patient projects intolerable feelings to the therapist, which can then be identified by the therapist and processed, reducing anxiety. Sudden feelings experienced by the therapist during a session that seem foreign can be reflections of the inner world of the patient, projected onto the therapist.



48. A 31-year old man shoots and kills his neighbor. The man pleads insanity due to a psychotic disorder. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic elements of his insanity defense?


A. Presence of a mental disorder


B. Presence of a defect of reason


C. A mental disorder demonstrated only by repeated criminal behavior


D. A lack of knowledge of the nature or wrongfulness of the act


E. An incapacity to refrain from the act

View Answer

C. The core of the insanity defense is the presence of a mental disorder. Mental disorders that meet criteria for the insanity defense do not include symptoms manifested solely as criminal behavior or antisocial acts. Presence of a defect of reason, lack of knowledge of wrongfulness, and incapacity to refrain from the criminal act are basic components of the insanity defense. However, the importance of these elements may vary depending on jurisdiction.



49. A 24-year old white man is brought to the psychiatric ER by his roommate. His roommate reports that the patient has been acting strangely and when he talks he does not seem to make sense. During the course of the evaluation, you notice that the patient has difficulty answering questions directly, provides a lot of details even to answer simple closed-ended questions, and is unable to come to the point. What disorder of thought process do you document on the mental status examination?


A. Circumstantiality


B. Tangentiality


C. Blocking


D. Loose Associations


E. Perseveration

View Answer

A. All of the choices are disorders of thought process. Circumstantiality is a disorder in which the patient is unable to be goal directed and incorporates exhausting details that are unnecessary, and has difficulty in arriving at an end point. Tangentiality describes a thought process in which the patient digresses from the subject and introduces thoughts that seem unrelated, skewed, and irrelevant. Blocking is a sudden cessation in the middle of a sentence, at which point a patient cannot recover what was said and is unable to complete their thoughts. Loose associations refer to switching from one topic to another with no apparent connection between the topics. Perseveration refers to repeating the same response to any questions with an inability to change the response or topic.



50. All of the following have been documented as warning signs that should trigger the suspicion for Factitious Disorder by Proxy EXCEPT:


A. Family history of similar sibling illness or death


B. History of drug abuse in the perpetrator


C. Laboratory findings that are unusual or discrepant


D. Symptoms that do not make sense


E. Victim who remains passive to perpetrator’s deeds

View Answer

B. A history of drug abuse has no connection with Factitious Disorder by Proxy. This disorder is also known as Münchhausen syndrome by proxy, and involves the intentional feigning or production of physical or psychological symptoms in another person who is under a perpetrator’s care, where the perpetrator’s motive is to assume the sick role by proxy. The perpetrator may give a false medical history and provide symptoms that do not make sense, as well as alter records or contaminate laboratory samples while the victim remains passive to the perpetrator’s deeds, and there is often a family history of similar sibling illness.



51. A 24-year old man is seen status post-motor-vehicle-related head trauma. He has now been referred for post-TBI rehabilitation. His wife wants to know when he will become “his old self again.” In discussing his prognosis with her, you should consider which of the following issues?


A. Recovery is a slow process that may take up to 10 years.


B. She may be manifesting “caregiver burden anxiety.”


C. A significant proportion of individuals with moderate to severe TBI may never recover to premorbid levels, and may in fact continue to manifest cognitive and behavioral difficulties.


D. Most TBI patients follow a well defined trajectory of recovery of cognitive functions following moderate to severe injury.


E. All of the above.

View Answer

C. Although post-TBI recovery is a gradual process, most patients show significant recovery within 3 years, while most of the recovery occurring within 6 months as the brain regenerates. Recovery following the more severe TBI is individualized and depends on nature, location, and severity of the injury. Most spouses of patients with moderate to severe TBI are appropriately concerned and perhaps apprehensive, thus this behavior falls within the norm.



52. A 27-year old black man was recently referred to the psychiatric outpatient service at a community mental health center from the ED of the local community hospital. The patient was brought to the ER a week ago because his family had noted that in the past few days, the patient had “appeared to be in a daze.” They report that 2 weeks prior to this, he was at a party with his friends and, while they were returning back, were stopped by some gangsters and robbed at gunpoint. According to the family, the patient came home and reported the incident to his family; however, he did not want to talk about it much more. During the evaluation at the ER, he had a complete medical workup which was noncontributory. Since the patient was not at imminent danger to himself or others, he was referred for outpatient treatment. He arrived promptly for his first session with you. He reports that he has been having difficulty sleeping and concentrating since the incident and every once in a while would have a flashback of the incident. Initially he was not able to go to work for a couple of days, but has now started going to work and has noticed that he is able to complete his work with difficulty. He reports being extremely anxious and finds himself watching over his shoulder and checking if anyone is following him. He agrees to twice a week appointments. While reevaluating the patient in 6 weeks, he reports marked improvements in his symptoms (he no longer has flashbacks and is able to talk more openly about his trauma). Given this information, what is his most likely diagnosis?


A. GAD


B. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)


C. Acute Stress Disorder


D. Panic Disorder


E. OCD

View Answer

C. The feature of acute stress disorder is the development of characteristic anxiety, dissociative, and other symptoms that occurs within 1 month after exposure to a traumatic stressor. Either while experiencing the traumatic event or after the event, the individual has at least three of the following dissociative symptoms: (i) a subjective sense of numbing, detachment, or absence of emotional responsiveness, (ii) a reduction in awareness of his or her surroundings, (iii) derealization, (iv) depersonalization, or (v) dissociative amnesia. Following the trauma, the traumatic event is persistently reexperienced, and the individual displays marked avoidance of stimuli that may arouse recollections of the trauma and has marked symptoms of anxiety or increased arousal. The symptoms must cause clinically significant distress, significantly interfere with normal functioning, or impair the individual’s ability to pursue necessary tasks. The disturbance lasts for a minimum of 2 days and a maximum of 4 weeks after the traumatic event. If symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks, the diagnosis of PTSD may be applied. The symptoms are not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance or a general medical condition, are not better accounted for by brief psychotic disorder, and are not merely an exacerbation of a preexisting mental disorder.



53. A 44-year old woman comes to your office seeking to start psychotherapy. She reports that she is currently in an abusive relationship and she is finding it very hard to leave her husband. She states that she is used to letting him make most of the decisions around the house. She works as an assistant in her husband’s business, and she even chose her career because her husband thought it would be a good choice for her. Since the age of 18 years, she cannot recall a time when she didn’t have a boyfriend, and she found it very hard to tolerate being alone. She fears her
husband’s explosive behavior, but she is very afraid of leaving him and having to take care of herself. Which of the following criteria is NOT included in the diagnosis of this patient’s disorder, as per the DSM-IV-TR criteria?


A. Subjects are unrealistically preoccupied with fears of being left to take care of self.


B. Subjects urgently seek another relationship as a source of care and support when a close relationship ends.


C. Subjects have a hard time making decisions without an excessive amount of advice from others.


D. Subjects show restraint within intimate relationships because of the fear of being shamed or ridiculed.


E. Subjects go to excessive lengths to obtain support from others.

View Answer

D. Subjects with Dependent Personality Disorder have an excessive need to be taken care of, and show submissive behavior and fear of separation. They think that they would be unable to function without the help of others and actively seek this help. They have unrealistic fears of being left to take care of themselves and they urgently seek other relationships as a source of support. They also have a hard time making decisions and need constant advice and support. Patients with avoidant personality disorder show restraint within intimate relationships because of the fear of being shamed or ridiculed.



54. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE of psychological therapies for GAD?


A. The CBT approach is more effective than treatment as usual/waiting list (TAU/WL) in achieving clinical response at post-treatment.


B. The CBT approach is more effective than TAU/WL in reducing anxiety at post-treatment.


C. The CBT approach is more effective than TAU/WL in reducing depressive symptoms at post-treatment.


D. CBT is superior to supportive therapy at achieving clinical response post-treatment.


E. Psychological therapy based on CBT principles is effective in reducing anxiety symptoms for short-term treatment of GAD.

View Answer

D. A recent Cochrane review included twenty-two studies with 1,060 participants with GAD. Based on thirteen studies, psychological therapies, all using a CBT approach, were more effective than TAU/WL in achieving clinical response at posttreatment (relative risk [RR]: 0.63; 95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.55 to 0.73), and also in reducing anxiety, worry, and depression symptoms. No studies conducted longer-term assessments of CBT against TAU/WL. Six studies compared CBT against supportive therapy (non-directive therapy and attention-placebo conditions). No significant difference in clinical response was indicated between CBT and supportive therapy at post-treatment (RR: 0.86; 95% CI: 0.70 to 1.06). Based on their findings, the authors concluded that psychological therapy based on CBT principles is effective in reducing anxiety symptoms for short-term treatment of GAD. The body of evidence comparing CBT with other psychological therapies is small and heterogeneous, which precludes drawing conclusions about which psychological therapy is more effective.



55. Which of the following medications can be used for the management of Opioid Withdrawal symptoms?


A. Methadone


B. Clonidine


C. Buprenorphine


D. Naltrexone


E. All of the above

View Answer

E. Pharmacologic agents used for assisting patients through a safer and more comfortable opioid withdrawal include use of an opioid agonist (methadone), α2-adrenergic agonist (clonidine), and a mixed opioid agonist/antagonist (buprenorphine). In addition, opioid antagonists, such as naltrexone and naloxone, are use in combination with clonidine or general anesthesia for rapid withdrawal from opiates.



56. Which of the following statements regarding TCAs is NOT TRUE?


A. They are mainly absorbed in the stomach.


B. They are mainly metabolized in the liver.


C. Their elimination half-lives is about 24 hours.


D. They are very lipophilic.


E. None of the above.

View Answer

A. TCAs are absorbed rapidly and completely in the small intestine. They are extensively bound to plasma proteins. They are mainly metabolized in the liver by demethylation of the side chain and hydroxylation of the ring structure. Elimination half-lives for most tricyclics is about 24 hours, therefore, they can be administered in once a day dosing schedule. The tricyclic and tetracyclic compound are lipophilic amines, therefore, have a high volume of distribution. They are concentrated in a variety of tissues in the body, and their concentration in cardiac tissues exceeds those in plasma.



57. Which of the following is a SNRI?


A. Bupropion


B. Venlafaxine


C. Paroxetine


D. Fluvoxamine


E. All of the above

View Answer

B. Venlafaxine is an SNRI, which is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract, and metabolized by P450 isoenzymes 2D6 and 3A4. Other SNRIs include milnacipran and duloxetine. Venlafaxine and milnacipran have been shown to be safe and effective antidepressants. In addition, research studies have suggested a role of venlafaxine in GAD, OCD, Panic Disorder, Social Phobia, Agoraphobia, and ADHD. Most common adverse effects observed with venlafaxine include asthenia, sweating, nausea, constipation, anorexia, vomiting, somnolence, dizziness, anxiety, tremor, blurred vision, impaired orgasm or ejaculation, and impotence in men. Venlafaxine is associated with sustained hypertension in patients treated with more than 300 mg/day. Duloxetine has been shown to be effective in treating depression and pain syndromes.



58. What percent of women meet the criteria for PMDD, as defined by DSM-IV-TR?


A. 3% to 5%


B. 11% to 20%


C. 21% to 30%


D. 31% to 40%


E. 70% to 80%

View Answer

A. Although statistics vary, approximately 3% to 5% of women meet criteria for PMDD. Most women of childbearing age experience some symptoms of MDD during the course of some of their menstrual cycles. PMDD is best determined by prospective daily symptom rating scales completed over a 2-month interval.



59. Which one of the following areas of is NOT involved in Wernicke’s encephalopathy (WE)?


A. Temporal lobes


B. Thalamus


C. Hypothalamus


D. Mamillary bodies


E. Cerebellar vermis

View Answer

A. Temporal lobes are unaffected in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Symmetric lesions are usually seen in the periventricular regions of the thalamus and hypothalamus, the nuclei at the level of the third and fourth ventricle, superior cerebellar vermis, and the mammillary bodies. The changes seen include necrosis, neuronal loss, edema, prominent capillaries with endothelial proliferation, and hemorrhage. In the late stages of the illness, cell loss with astrocytic and microglial proliferation may also be seen.



60. A 55-year old Vietnam War veteran has been recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. He is referred to your consultation liaison service because of “anxiety” symptoms. You are told that he is being considered for interferon alpha therapy. On examination he says he is worried about “all possible psychiatric side effects of interferon treatment.” In educating him about the neuropsychiatric complication of this drug, you should consider all of the following EXCEPT:


A. Anxiety is the commonest psychiatric disorder in patients undergoing interferon therapy.


B. Psychosis is a common psychiatric disorder in these patients.


C. Treatment emergent depressive symptoms are frequently encountered and may be reason for premature termination of interferon therapy.


D. Prophylactic antidepressant therapy has been approved by the FDA and has become part of routine care in these patients.


E. Treatment emergent suicidal behaviors have been directly linked to INF therapy.

View Answer

D. Hepatitis C virus infection has been associated with depression independent of therapeutic complications. Personality Disorders, anxiety, and Somatization Disorders are no more prevalent in hepatitis patients than in the general population. Interferon-α is a cytokine host defense protein and immune modulator. Produced by lymphocytes, it is indicated for the treatment of hepatitis C, melanoma, and renal cell carcinoma. Interferon-α therapy is associated with a variety of psychiatric symptoms. For example, some studies indicate depression rates as high as 40%. Other less well documented neuropsychiatric symptoms include poor concentration, memory deficits, anxiety, and rarely psychosis. Treatment emergent depression is a frequent reason for premature termination of INF therapy. Well defined risk factors for depression in these patients have been documented. Dose and duration of INF therapy, pretreatment depressive symptoms particularly mild depression have been shown to be risk factors for INF-induced depression. Age, gender, and substance use history have not been shown to impact this risk. Depression occurring in INF-treated patients typically becomes evident and peaks at week 4 and week 24, respectively. Although there are studies suggesting that prophylactic antidepressant therapy may lead to significant reduction in depression rates among patients undergoing INF therapy, this mode of intervention is currently not approved by the FDA, nor is it routine standard of care.



61. Which of the following is TRUE of electroencephalogram (EEG) recordings between seizures?


A. A single EEG recording will show a normal pattern in 30% of patients with absence seizures.


B. A single EEG recording will show a normal pattern in 50% of those with grand mal epilepsy.


C. A single EEG recording will show abnormal although nonspecific activity in 30% to 40% of epileptics.


D. All of the above.


E. None of the above.

View Answer

D. In between seizures, a single EEG recording will show a normal pattern in 30% of patients with absence seizures and 50% of those with grand mal epilepsy. Another 30% to 40% of epileptics, though abnormal between seizures, are nonspecific. Therefore, the diagnosis of epilepsy can be made only by the correct interpretation of clinical data in relation to the EEG abnormality.



62. Diagnosis of which type of disorder may be more readily performed via cerebral angiography?


A. Infection


B. Tumor


C. Vascular disorder



D. Fracture


E. None of the above

View Answer

C. Cerebral angiography (using dye and x-rays) is most useful in diagnosing cerebrovascular disorders. This does not necessarily include stroke or certain types of hemorrhages, for which CT and MRI are extremely useful. Conventional angiography is particularly useful in diagnosing aneurysms, vascular malformations, arterial and venous occlusion, angiitis, and dissection. CTA and a CTA (CTangiography) and MRA (MRangiography) may eventually replace traditional angiography, but for now it is still used, particularly in interventional procedures. It is a potentially dangerous and invasive technique. Tumors are best visualized on MRI (sometimes CT, e.g., men and genome is), fractures on CT. Certain infections can be seen on CT or MRI (e.g., cysticercosis, toxoplasmosis, and the effects of meningitis), but LP remains vital.



63. Typical findings of acute alcoholic myopathy include all of the following EXCEPT:


A. Elevated level of serum creatine kinase


B. Fever


C. Rhabdomyolysis


D. Polymyositis


E. Muscle weakness

View Answer

B. Alcoholic myopathy ranges in severity from asymptomatic elevation of serum creatine kinase, to a progressive polymyositis-like presentation, to acute rhabdomyolysis. Muscle weakness is common, but fever is not typically present.



64. A 50-year old black man with a 30-year history of Alcohol Dependence is being seen at the ER of a tertiary care hospital for a 1-week history of worsening confusion. On examination, he is very confused and scores a 10/30 on the Folstein Mini-Mental State Examination. Staff at the ER, who have known him for the last 10 years, indicate that he is much more confused than before and is also confabulating. He is very unsteady on his feet and is exhibiting horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze. The blood alcohol level is zero and the urine drug screen is negative for any illicit drugs. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the head does not show any acute changes and all other blood tests are normal including the liver function test. You discuss this information with the attending physician who indicates that the patient should be treated with thiamine. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE of thiamine and its importance in the pathophysiology of this patient’s condition?


A. Thiamine deficiency results in reduced synthesis of high-energy phosphates and accumulation of lactate.


B. The highest concentrations of thiamine are found in yeast and in the pericarp of grain.


C. The area most vulnerable to thiamine deficiency in the brain is the cerebral cortex.


D. A continuous dietary supply of thiamine is necessary to keep up with the body’s requirement.


E. Prolonged cooking of food, baking of bread, and pasteurization of milk all are potential causes for loss of thiamine from foods.

View Answer

C. This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy due to the deficiency of thiamine. The clinical features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy include a subacute onset of ocular palsies, nystagmus, gait ataxia, and confusion. Thiamine functions as a coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates and branched-chain amino acids. Thiamine deficiency results in reduced synthesis of high-energy phosphates and causes an accumulation of lactate. The recommended daily requirement for adults is 1.2 mg/day for men and 1.1 mg/day for women, and its highest concentrations are found in yeast and in the pericarp of grain. Most cereals and breads available in the United States are fortified with thiamine. Organ meats are good sources of thiamine, while dairy products, seafood, and fruits are poor sources. Prolonged cooking of food, baking of bread, and pasteurization of milk remain potential causes of thiamine loss. The areas most vulnerable to thiamine deficiency in the brain are those with the highest turnover rates like the caudal part of the brain and the cerebellum. As its turnover rate is rapid (half-life of 10 to 14 days) and there is lack of storage, a continuous dietary supply of thiamine is necessary to balance the body’s requirement. In some cases thiamine deficiency may manifest in just 2 to 3 weeks on a deficient diet. Thiamine deficiency in alcoholism occurs because of inadequate dietary intake, reduced gastrointestinal absorption, and reduced liver thiamine stores. Additionally, alcohol also inhibits the transport of thiamine in the gastrointestinal system and blocks phosphorylation of thiamine to thiamine diphosphate, the active form of thiamine.

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Jul 15, 2016 | Posted by in PSYCHIATRY | Comments Off on Questions

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