Questions
1. Which one of the following is considered normal in an aging man?
A. Impotence
B. Retarded ejaculation
C. Hypoactive sexual desire
D. Increased time needed to achieve an erection
E. Premature ejaculation
View Answer
D. Impotence, retarded and premature ejaculation, and hypoactive sexual desire are all sexual disorders. Needing more time and more direct stimulation to achieve an erection is common in an aging man.
2. Which of the following pathological findings is more commonly seen in patients with Schizophrenia?
A. Cortical gliosis
B. Thalamic gliosis
C. Decreased prefrontal gray matter
D. Enlarged hippocampus
E. Decreased thalamic density
View Answer
C. The prefrontal cortex of patients with Schizophrenia is thinner when compared to normal subjects. This thinning is thought to be mainly due to loss of neuropil; the area between neuronal and glial cell bodies. The absence of gliosis in brains of subjects with Schizophrenia most likely points to the absence of an inflammatory process in the pathogenesis of this illness. The hippocampus is smaller in size and functionally abnormal in patients with Schizophrenia. Studies of the thalamus have revealed controversial data. Some authors have found a reduced number of neurons in the medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus, whereas others have found no differences.
3. Which of the following statements is best supported by Konrad Lorenz’s work on aggression inanimals?
A. Aggression is not commonly seen among members of the same species, as it is between species.
B. An animal that is consistently attacked will eventually give up and make no attempt to escape.
C. Aggression between the members of the same species often leads to serious injury or death.
D. In any conflict situations, animals will display displacement activities.
E. There is a practical function of aggression, and a balance between tendencies to fight and flight.
View Answer
E. Ethologist Konrad Lorenz is well known for his study of aggression. He wrote about the practical function of aggression and showed that although aggression among members of the same species is common, it seldom leads to killing or serious injury under normal conditions. Rather, a certain balance appears between tendencies to fight and flight, with the tendency to fight being strongest in the center of the territory and the tendency to flight strongest at a distance from the center. The learned helplessness model of depression was developed by Martin Seligman, where he observed that dogs exposed to electric shocks from which they could not escape eventually gave up and made no more attempts to escape, and this behavior generalized to other situations. Ethologist Nikolaas Tinbergen described displacement activities as those that occur when a conflict arises and the need for fight and for flight are of roughly equal strength, so the animal engages in behavior that appears to be irrelevant to the situation.
4. Incidence of which of the following psychiatric disorders has the highest female to male ratio?
A. Social Phobia
B. Schizophrenia
C. Bipolar Disorder
D. Alcohol Dependence
E. Major Depression
View Answer
A. Incidence of Social Phobia is estimated at 4:1 ratio for female:male. Most other anxiety disorders (with the exception of OCD) have a female:male ratio close to that of Major Depression, which is 2:1. Schizophrenia and Bipolar Disorders have roughly equal female:male ratios overall for lifetime. For most substance abuse disorders (the main exception being cocaine and stimulant abuse), including alcoholism, the male:female ratio approaches 2:1. Although not listed, gender differences are greatest for eating disorders, with female:male ratios ≥10:1.
5. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan of a patient with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) symptoms would likely reveal increased activity in all of the following regions EXCEPT:
A. Orbitofrontal (anterior cingulate) cortex
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Thalamus
D. Midbrain
E. Putamen
View Answer
D. PET scans show that OCD is associated with increased glucose metabolism in the orbitofrontal cortex (a.k.a., anterior cingulate cortex), caudate, thalamus, and putamen. This overactivity trends back toward normal with response to treatment. The brainstem (midbrain) is not thought to be significantly involved in OCD.
6. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. In Factitious Disorder, the motivation for symptom production is an external incentive.
B. In Malingering, the motivation for symptom production is an intrapsychic conflict and the need to maintain the sick role.
C. In Conversion Disorder, there is no intentional production of symptoms or obvious external incentives associated with it.
D. In Malingering, symptom relief is often obtained by suggestion or hypnosis.
E. All of the above.
View Answer
C. In Malingering, the motivation for symptom production is an external incentive, whereas in Factitious Disorder there are no external incentives. In Factitious Disorder, there is evidence of an intrapsychic conflict and the need to maintain the sick role. In Conversion Disorder, there is no intentional production of symptoms and no obvious external incentives associated with it. In Malingering, in contrast to Conversion Disorder, there is usually no symptom relief from suggestion or hypnosis.
7. A 65-year-old woman with hypertension and diabetes, both well controlled with antihypertensives and oral hypoglycemic agents, is brought by her daughter to a psychiatrist for an evaluation. The patient’s husband of 40 years died 1 month ago, and the patient has been hearing the voice of her deceased husband. She admits to feeling sad, has difficulty concentrating on reading and is tearful when she thinks of her husband and sometimes hears his voice calling her. She states she is sleeping well, has a good appetite, and that she enjoys spending time with her grandchildren and wants to see them grow up. She scores a 25/30 on the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Admit the patient for an in-patient hospitalization and obtain a brain CT scan
B. Prescribe a low dose antipsychotic agent for auditory hallucinations
C. Prescribe an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor for the beginning stages of dementia
D. Prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for depression
E. Reassure the patient and family that she is experiencing normal grieving
View Answer
E. This patient does not show any signs of a pathologic bereavement, and a diagnosis of MDD is generally not given unless symptom criteria for depression are still present after 2 months. In acute bereavement, up to 50% of grieving spouses have reported hearing a recently deceased loved one’s voice or feeling the presence of the deceased. The patient does not show evidence of a primary psychosis requiring treatment with an antipsychotic, and her current condition does not warrant hospitalization or head imaging at this time as she does not show any suicidality, homicidality, or psychotic symptoms. The patient scored within normal range for her age on MMSE, does not give evidence of a dementing illness with complaints of memory loss, and does not need medication for dementia at this time.
8. All of the following are TRUE of Postpsychotic Depressive Disorder of Schizophrenia EXCEPT:
A. It is thought to occur in approximately 25% of patients with Schizophrenia.
B. Symptoms experienced by patients with this disorder are the equivalent of negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.
C. There is evidence that there is a correlation between the disorder and extrapyramidal symptoms.
D. There is evidence that antidepressants can be useful as a treatment.
E. Depressive symptoms must occur during the residual phase of schizophrenia.
View Answer
B. Postpsychotic Depressive Disorder of schizophrenia requires depressive symptoms, including depressed mood, that occur only during the residual phase of Schizophrenia. It is estimated that approximately 25% of patients with Schizophrenia develop the disorder. Although the depressive symptoms can be hard to distinguish from negative symptoms, the symptoms are not identical and refer to two distinct diagnostic entities. Antidepressants have been used as treatment and several studies have found a positive effect. There is a significant correlation between Postpsychotic Depressive Disorder and extrapyramidal symptoms secondary to antipsychotic medications.
9. A 42-year-old man previously diagnosed years ago with Schizophrenia for bizarre delusions, now lives with his parents, and continues to report some unusual perceptions, expresses some mild odd beliefs, and eccentric behavior. He no longer has frank delusions or hallucinations. He appears emotionally blunted, and spends much of his time alone doing very little. Which is the most likely subtype diagnosis for his Schizophrenia?
A. Undifferentiated type
B. Disorganized type
C. Residual type
D. Catatonic type
E. Paranoid type
View Answer
C. Residual Schizophrenia is diagnosed via DSM-IV-TR criteria in patients who once met full criteria for Schizophrenia and no longer have prominent psychotic symptoms, but still have some evidence of ongoing illness, often in an attenuated form. They may have ongoing negative symptoms, as in this case, or also attenuated positive symptoms. The Paranoid subtype presents with prominent delusions or hallucinations, often with preserved cognition. The Disorganized subtype presents with prominent disorganization of speech or behavior, inappropriate affect, with severe social impairment, and poor long-term functioning, and was once termed hebephrenia. Catatonic Schizophrenia presents with at least two catatonic symptoms, a prominent psychomotor disturbance, with early onset, and poor prognosis. The Undifferentiated subtype is the most commonly diagnosed subtype of schizophrenia, where criteria are met for the active phase but do not fully meet criteria for any of the other subtypes of the illness.
10. While observing a group session, there seems to be a theme that the group members have rallied around two individuals who are romantically involved and whose love will help save the group. Which of the following Bion subgroups would best account for this scenario?
A. Work group
B. Dependency basic assumption group
C. Fight or Flight basic assumption group
D. Pairing basic assumption group
E. None of the above
View Answer
D. Wilfred Bion worked to elucidate group dynamics at the Tavistock Institute in London, and described two main subgroups: the work group and the basic assumption group. The work group is involved in performing the actual task assigned to the group. The basic assumption group is divided into three categories: dependency, fight or flight, and pairing. These basic assumptions pertain to the unconscious fantasies of the group members and they interfere with the accomplishment of the work group’s task. The group members’ behavior reveals which basic assumption predominates. In this vignette, the group members are focusing on one pair whose love is hoped will rescue/save the group; behavior that is a defense against negative emotions (hate and hostility) within the group. Bion came from the school of Kleinian object relations, and he also developed the concept of the psychiatrist as the container for the patient in therapy.
11. Which of the following is an important consideration in the referral of patients to specialized long-term alcohol rehabilitation program?
A. Living in an unstable environment
B. Polysubstance Dependence
C. Multiple treatment failures
D. Dual diagnoses: Comorbid severe mental illness and Alcohol Dependence
E. All of the above
View Answer
E. Several factors have been shown to negatively affect successful nonspecialized short-term alcohol rehabilitation. These include unstable living environment (homelessness), additional substance related disorders, serial treatment failures, and the presence of concomitant serious mental illnesses. The presence of any of these factors is a red flag for possible poor outcome and an indication for referral to specialized long-term treatment program.
12. Which psychodynamic characteristic of Passive-Aggressive subtype of Dependent Personality structure is incorrectly paired?
A. Central preoccupation: Tolerating mistreatment versus getting revenge
B. Central affects: Anger, resentment, and pleasure in hostile enactments
C. Pathogenic belief about self: I am entitled to hurt and humiliate others
D. Pathogenic belief about others: People all want me to conform to their rules
E. Central defenses: Projection, externalization, denial, and rationalization
View Answer
C. Unlike the straightforward presentation of uncomplicated characterological dependency, individuals with Passive-Aggressive subtype of Dependent Personality Disorder resent being tied to another, yet cannot separate psychologically. Their dependency has a hostile edge and manifests itself via a tendency to punish others indirectly. Normal aggression is expressed obliquely in an effort to vent negative affect without threatening attachment. Dependent Passive-Aggressive individuals define themselves by reference to others, but with a negative valence (e.g., “I am the husband of that bitch”). Like paranoid patients, they attack to preempt expected attack by others, but they do so indirectly. Like masochistic patients, they expect mistreatment, but they fight back, albeit insidiously. They have core narcissistic concerns, but are more interpersonally engaged than characterologically narcissistic people. Because they locate themselves in opposition to others’ agendas, it is hard for them to conceive of and to pursue their own goals. The Passive-Aggressive subtype of Dependent Personality disorder’s pathogenic belief about self is that “The only route to dignity is to sabotage the achievements of others.” In contrast, sadistic personality disorder’s pathogenic belief about self is that “I am entitled to hurt and humiliate others.”
13. Which of the following is TRUE of behavioral and relaxation approaches to treating chronic pain?
A. Available data indicates that cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective treatment for this condition.
B. The evidence is strong for the effectiveness of relaxation in reducing chronic pain in a variety of medical conditions.
C. The evidence supporting the effectiveness of hypnosis in alleviating chronic pain associated with cancer is weak.
D. The evidence is weak for the effectiveness of biofeedback (BF) in relieving chronic pain.
E. None of the above.
View Answer
B. Evaluation of behavioral and relaxation interventions for chronic pain in adults found the following: (i) relaxation, (ii) hypnosis, (iii) CBT, (iv) BF, and (v) multimodal treatment were all helpful in pain reduction. The evidence is strong for the effectiveness of the relaxation class of techniques in reducing chronic pain in a variety of medical conditions. The evidence supporting the effectiveness of hypnosis in alleviating chronic pain associated with cancer seems strong. In addition, data suggests that it is effective in other chronic pain conditions, which include irritable bowel syndrome, oral mucositis, temporomandibular disorders, and tension headaches. The evidence is moderate for the usefulness of CBT in chronic pain. CBT has been found to be superior to placebo and to routine care for alleviating low back pain and both rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis-associated pain, but inferior to hypnosis for oral mucositis and to electromyography (EMG) BF for tension headache. The evidence is moderate for the effectiveness of BF in relieving many types of chronic pain. Data shows that EMG BF to be more effective than psychological placebo for tension headache but equivalent in results to relaxation. For migraine headache, BF is better than relaxation therapy and better than no treatment, but superiority to psychological placebo is less clear. Several meta-analyses have examined the effectiveness of multimodal treatments in clinical settings. Although relatively good evidence exists for the efficacy of several behavioral and relaxation interventions in the treatment of chronic pain, the data are insufficient to conclude that one technique is usually more effective than another for a given condition. For any given individual patient, however, one approach may be more appropriate than another.
14. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE of venlafaxine?
A. Venlafaxine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI).
B. It does not have an active metabolite.
C. Steady-state concentrations is attained in the blood within 3 days.
D. It should never be used in conjunction with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
E. Caution should also be used in those patients with a seizure disorder.
View Answer
B. Venlafaxine is an SNRI. It works by blocking the serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) reuptake. Venlafaxine is well absorbed with at least 92% of an oral dose being absorbed into systemic circulation. It is extensively metabolized in the liver via the CYP2D6 isoenzyme to O-desmethylvenlafaxine, which is just as potent an SNRI as the parent compound. This means that the differences in metabolism between extensive and poor metabolizers are not clinically important. Steady-state concentrations of venlafaxine and its metabolite are attained in the blood within 3 days and therapeutic effects are usually achieved within 3 to 4 weeks. The half-life of venlafaxine is about 5 hours for venlafaxine and 10 hours for its active metabolite O-desmethylvenlafaxine. It can produce withdrawal symptoms even with missing a single dose.
Venlafaxine is not recommended in patients hypersensitive to venlafaxine. It should never be used in conjunction with an MAOI, due to the potential to develop serotonin syndrome. Caution should also be used in those with a seizure disorder as it has a seizure risk of about 0.3%. The clearance of venlafaxine is reduced in patients with hepatic and renal disease, and hence the dosage should be reduced by 50% in these patients. Venlafaxine should only be used during pregnancy if clearly needed. It is contraindicated in breast-feeding.
15. Which individual diagnosis listed below carries the greatest risk of completed suicide?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Schizoaffective Disorder
C. Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)
D. Bipolar Disorder
E. Alcohol Abuse
View Answer
D. Bipolar disorders are prevalent, disabling illnesses with elevated lethality largely due to completed suicide. Suicide rates average approximately 1% annually, sixty times higher than the international population rate of 0.015% annually. Suicidal acts typically occur early in the illness and usually associated with severe depressive or mixed states. The high lethality of suicidal acts in Bipolar Disorders is suggested by a much lower ratio of attempts:suicide (approximately 3:1) than in the general population (approximately 30:1).
16. During a neurological examination you notice that a patient does not have taste sensation in the anterior two thirds of the tongue. Which cranial nerve is most likely to be affected in this case?
A. CN IV
B. CN V
C. CN VI
D. CN VII
E. CN IX
View Answer
D. Taste sensation is provided by two different cranial nerves. The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensation in the two anterior thirds of the tongue, whereas the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is responsible for taste sensation in the posterior third of the tongue. Cranial nerves IV, V, and VI are not involved in taste sensation.
17. A 25-year-old woman presents to a clinic with complaints of sudden onset of blindness in her right eye with right-sided paresis and right-sided sensory loss. Funduscopic exam is normal and extraocular movements are intact. Pupils are round and reactive to light and accommodation. She is unable to lift her right leg against resistance and drags her right leg behind her when she walks. A magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) would most likely reveal which of the following:
imaging (MRI) would most likely reveal which of the following:
A. A lesion in the cerebellum
B. A lesion in the cerebrum
C. A lesion in the midbrain
D. A lesion in the pons
E. No lesion
View Answer
E. The patient’s symptoms cannot be explained by a single lesion, and a blatant psychogenic gait impairment occurs when patients drag a “weak” leg. In contrast, patients with a true hemiparetic gait end up swinging their leg outward with a circular motion. If she had a left cerebral lesion causing a right hemiparesis, then the patient’s visual deficit should be a right homonymous hemianopia, and there should be the usual accompanying symptom of aphasia. There are no physical exam findings to indicate any cranial nerve deficits that would make one suspect a lesion in the brainstem, and a cerebellar lesion would be associated with ipsilateral limb ataxia. The patient’s symptoms cannot be confirmed by objective signs, and her gait is suggestive of an absence of a true neurologic disease.
18. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE of Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
A. It is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies directed against voltage-gated calcium channels develop in the peripheral nerve terminals.
B. It develops in adults, and occurs in 60% of patients with small cell carcinoma of the lung.
C. In patients with small cell carcinoma of the lung, neurologic symptoms usually precede those of the tumor.
D. In those patients who have the syndrome without any tumors, they have the human leucocyte antigen (HLA)-B8 and DR-3 haplotype.
E. The diagnosis is confirmed by the characteristic reduction in response to repetitive nerve stimulation.
View Answer
E. The Lambert-Eaton syndrome is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies directed against voltage-gated calcium channels develop in the peripheral nerve terminals. It usually occurs in adults, and is seen in about 60% of patients with small cell carcinoma of the lung. In these patients, the neurologic symptoms mostly precede those of the tumor by almost 5 years in some cases. About 33% of cases of Lambert-Eaton syndrome are not associated with any tumors. These patients tend to have the HLA-B8, DR-3 haplotype. The diagnosis is made based on the clinical manifestations and is confirmed by the characteristic incremental response to repetitive nerve stimulation which is the opposite of the pattern in myasthenia gravis.
19. An 18-year-old high school senior describes episodes of dizziness, “spacing out,” and paresthesia around her mouth and fingertips. On occasions, her wrists bend and her fingers are pulled together. These episodes last for less than 5 minutes. You review an electroencephalogram (EEG) performed during one of these episodes 2 years ago. This shows slowing of background activities and occasional bursts of high voltage. You can attempt to confirm your diagnosis by which of the following bedside maneuvers?
A. Valsalva maneuver
B. Asking her to stand up rapidly from a supine position
C. Have the patient hyperventilate
D. Simulating a populated room
E. Exposing her to sudden loud noise
View Answer
C. This patient is most likely experiencing carpopedal spasm and EEG slowing from hyperventilation. Having the patient hyperventilate will most certainly recreate her symptoms, a useful bedside diagnostic test. Prolonged hyperventilation could result in altered consciousness which is quickly aborted by breathing into a bag. All the other techniques mentioned are not useful in recreating a popedal spasm.
20. Which of the following represents the rate-limiting step in the metabolic synthesis of norepinephrine?
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Dehydroxyphenyl alanine (DOPA) decarboxylase
C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase (DβH)
D. Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
E. Norepinephrine transporter (NET)
View Answer
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts the amino acid tyrosine into DOPA, and is the rate-limiting step in the production of both dopamine and norepinephrine. DOPA is converted into dopamine by the action of DOPA decarboxylase (a.k.a., L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase). DβH converts dopamine to norepinephrine, but is not the rate-limiting step. COMT degrades intrasynaptic norepinephrine after it is formed. NET removes norepinephrine to intracellular monoamine oxidases (MOAs) for degradation, not formation, and is the primary means of norepinephrine removal. Neither COMT nor NET is active in production or synthesis of norepinephrine.
21. A 35-year-old man presents to clinic with complaints of shaking of his hands. The shaking began a year ago and is particularly bad when writing or eating. He noticed that stress often makes the shaking worse, but having a glass of wine before meals allows him to eat without dropping food. He remembers his father had similar complaints before passing away from a tragic car accident. Given his history, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his condition?
A. Essential tremor
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
D. Parkinson’s disease (PD)
E. Wilson’s disease
View Answer
A. The patient described has an essential tremor, which is one of the most common movement disorders. This postural tremor may have its onset anywhere between the second and sixth decades of life, and its prevalence increases with age. The positive family history and improvement with alcohol are typical features of essential tremor. Parkinson’s disease typically has a characteristic resting tremor that appears like a “pill-rolling” motion and begins asymmetrically. The patient is young and does not present with other common signs of Parkinson’s disease: rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. The patient’s history is not consistent with MS, which is a demyelinating illness. Huntington’s disease is characterized by a choreiform movement disorder and a myriad of psychiatric manifestations, which this patient does not present with at this time. He is not presenting with symptoms of Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration), which is characterized by a Parkinson-like tremor and ataxia, or a characteristic wing-beating tremor where patients move their arms as if they were attempting to fly. It is an autosomal recessive genetic illness that is characterized by the development of dementia with involuntary movements from copper deposits in the brain and other organs, and symptoms tend to manifest by adolescence.
22. The presence or absence of all of the following clinical features is useful in distinguishing between cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM) and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) EXCEPT:
A. Tongue fasciculations
B. Atrophy of arms
C. Atrophy of legs
D. Denervation
E. Sensory loss
View Answer
B. Atrophy of arms is present in both conditions, thus would not be a clinical feature useful in making a diagnosis between CSM and ALS. However, tongue fasciculations, atrophy of legs, and denervation are all present in ALS, but are absent in CSM. Likewise, sensory loss is present with CSM, but is absent in ALS.
23. A 30-year-old white woman is diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). While deciding on the appropriate treatment for this condition, which one of the following choices would you NOT take into account as the information is NOT CORRECT?
A. Plasma exchange or IV immunoglobulins (IVIG) hastens the recovery from GBS
B. The beneficial effects of plasma exchange and IVIG are equivalent
C. Combining plasma exchange and IVIG is much better that monotherapy with either drug alone
D. Plasma exchange should be given to non-ambulatory adult patients with GBS who start treatment within four weeks of the onset of neurologic symptoms
E. IVIG is recommended for non-ambulatory adult patients with GBS who start treatment within two or possibly four weeks of the onset of neurologic symptoms
View Answer
C. The American Academy of Neurology (AAN) practice parameter on immunotherapy for GBS states that plasma exchange or IVIG hastens the recovery from GBS. The beneficial effects of plasma exchange and IVIG are equivalent and that combining the two treatments has not been found to be beneficial. They also state that treatment with steroids alone is not beneficial in these patients. The AAN recommends plasma exchange for nonambulatory adult patients with GBS who start treatment within 4 weeks of the onset of neurologic symptoms. Plasma exchange is also recommended for ambulatory patients who start treatment within 2 weeks of the onset of neurologic symptoms. IVIG is recommended for non-ambulatory adult patients with GBS who start treatment within 2 or possibly 4 weeks of the onset of neurologic symptoms.
24. All of the following are TRUE of the neuropathological features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) EXCEPT:
A. Neuronal degeneration and astrocytic proliferation are commonly seen
B. The grey matter shows a characteristic spongy appearance
C. Circumscribed atrophy is often seen in the parietal and occipital lobes
D. Neurofibrillary tangles are commonly seen
E. Cortical status of spongiosus is not entirely pathognomonic of this disorder
View Answer
C. The essential features of CJD are neuronal degeneration, astrocytic proliferation, and status spongiosus of the cortical grey matter. The cortex is almost always involved with relative sparing of the parietal and occipital lobes. The corticospinal and extrapyramidal pathways are often severely affected. Whilst being characteristic of CJD, status spongiosus is not entirely pathognomonic of this disorder, as it is sometimes seen in other degenerative conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease and Wilson’s disease. There are no neurofibrillary tangles as seen in Alzheimer’s disease or massive circumscribed atrophy as in frontotemporal dementias such as Pick’s disease. There is no evidence of an inflammatory reaction.
25. Which of the following choices is NOT TRUE of akathisia?
A. Akathisia is an extremely unpleasant sensation that manifests itself as an inability to sit still.
B. In certain cases, the dysphoria can be so severe that patients may attempt suicide.
C. It may often be misdiagnosed as an anxiety disorder.
D. It may also be seen in Parkinson’s disease.
E. Benztropine is the drug of choice to treat this condition.
View Answer
E. Akathisia is an extremely unpleasant subjective sensation of “inner” restlessness that manifests itself as an inability to sit still or remain motionless. It ranges from mild to a total inability to sit still with overwhelming anxiety and severe dysphoria. In severe cases, the dysphoria can be so severe that patients may attempt suicide. It may often be misdiagnosed as an anxiety disorder. It can be measured by using the Barnes Akathisia Scale. Akathisia is most often seen as a side effect of antipsychotic drug therapy, either as acute akathisia or tardive akathisia. It may also be seen in encephalopathies, in some dementias, and in Parkinson’s disease. Paroxetine, tricyclics antidepressants, trazodone, promethazine, diphenhydramine, metoclopramide, and prochlorperazine may also cause akathisia. Drugs of abuse like gammahydroxybutyrate (GHB) and 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA, ecstasy) may cause akathisia in overdoses. Treatment includes the reduction or discontinuation of the offending agent. Propranolol is often considered as the drug of choice for the treatment of akathisia. Cyproheptadine or benztropine may be second-line agents for the treatment of this condition.
26. A 70-year-old white woman presents with sudden onset of right unilateral temporal scalp pain and reduced vision in the right eye. Given this history, which one of the following should be the next best step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Start treatment with intravenous methylprednisone
B. Get a temporal artery biopsy to confirm diagnosis
C. Order an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) to confirm diagnosis
D. Start treatment with acetaminophen
E. Start treatment with methotrexate
View Answer
A. Blindness occurs in about 50% of the patients with temporal arteritis, if left untreated. In patients with visual symptoms, treatment should be initiated with intravenous formulations such as methylprednisolone (Medrol). Treatment should not be delayed while awaiting temporal artery biopsy. Corticosteroid therapy has no effect on biopsy results for up to 4 weeks after initiation of treatment. Hence, prompt treatment should be initiated on suspicion of this condition. Patients may also develop thrombosis of any peridural artery or an aortic aneurysm with rupture if left untreated. The ESR is often elevated in these patients, but a normal ESR does not temporal arteritis. Serum viscosity and C-reactive protein levels are often elevated and may be helpful in the diagnosis or to follow-up the effect of treatment, in those with normal ESR. Plasma interleukin-6 (IL-6) is thought to be the most sensitive marker of disease activity. Treatment with methotrexate is not routinely recommended, as studies using methotrexate in temporal arteritis are still inconclusive.
27. Which one of the following statements about suicide and gender is NOT TRUE?
A. Suicide risk increases with age for both sexes, but the rates in older men are generally higher than those for women.
B. In the United States men commit suicide four times more commonly than women, but women attempt suicide three times as often as men.
C. Men also tend to use more lethal suicide methods than women.
D. Factors that contribute to these gender differences include the presence of depression and comorbid alcohol and/or substance abuse.
E. In women, pregnancy is a time of significantly increased suicide risk.
View Answer
E. Suicide risk increases with age for both sexes, but the rates in older men are generally higher than in those for women. In the United States, men commit suicide four times more often than women, but women attempt suicide three times as often as men. However, this female predominance among suicide attempters varies with age and the ratio of women to men approaches 1:1 in the elderly. Men also tend to use more lethal suicide methods than women (e.g., firearms or hanging compared to cutting or overdoses). In the United States, women in middle ages are at highest risk of suicide than at any other time in their lives. Suicide attempts are also more common in women with borderline personality disorder, those with a history of domestic violence, and a history of physical and/or sexual abuse. In women, pregnancy is a time of significantly reduced suicide risk. Women with young children in the home are less likely to kill themselves. But those women with a history of depression or suicide attempts are at greater risk during the postpartum period compared to women who don’t have such a history. Suicide is most likely to occur in the first month after delivery, but the risk continues throughout the postpartum period. Teenagers, women of lower socioeconomic status, and women hospitalized with postpartum psychiatric disorders are particularly at increased risk in the postpartum period.
28. Which one of the following is a characteristic of the tau-protein?
A. They normally maintain the cytoskeleton, axonal flow, and nerve cell circuitry.
B. They are neuropil threads.
C. They can be visualized with anti-A β antibodies.
D. They generate a glial response.
E. They are thought to be a degeneration of the neuronal cytoskeleton.
View Answer
A. Tau-protein normally binds to microtubules and stabilizes the neuronal skeleton, axonal flow, and cell circuitry. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau-proteins become hyperphosphorylated and this weakens its affinity for the microtubules. Neurofibrillary tangles are filaments found in axonal processes throughout the neuropil in brains of patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
Amyloid plaques are universally immunoreactive to anti-Aβ antibodies because the Aβ peptide is the most common protein in these lesions. Neuritic plaques are associated with a glial response, which is thought to produce a chronic state of proinflammatory activation. Hirano bodies are eosinophilic inclusions found most commonly in the hippocampus. They are thought to represent degeneration of the neuronal cytoskeleton.
29. A 12-year-old Haitian girl is referred from school for an evaluation of potential psychosis after a teacher overheard the patient talking to spirits in an empty classroom. She is well groomed and engaging, has many friends at school, is doing well academically, and is an active participant in many school activities and sports. The patient is embarrassed to admit to feeling “spirits” of her deceased ancestors around her most of the time and states conversing with them helps her relax when nervous. The patient’s parents and grandparents also believe in the presence of these spirits but are willing to follow any suggestions from the psychiatrist. The patient denies any history of drug use and denies any recent or current feelings of depression or suicidal ideation, intent, or plan. Which one of the following is the most appropriate intervention at this time for this patient?
A. Admit the patient to an in-patient unit for workup of psychosis.
B. Prescribe a low-dose antipsychotic agent and follow the patient as an outpatient.
C. Reassure the patient and family that there is no obvious psychiatric illness.
D. Recommend family counseling to treat delusional disorder among the family.
E. Separate the patient from her parents and look into foster care.
View Answer
C. Delusions are disturbances in content of thought that are fixed, false beliefs out of keeping with the patients’ cultural background. In this well related patient, belief in spirits is a part of the patient’s cultural background and is supported by her family. The patient does not show any other signs concerning for psychiatric illness and is functioning optimally in academic and social settings. She does not require in-patient hospitalization, nor does her cultural belief require an antipsychotic prescription that would be helpful in patients with frank delusions. There is no indication that the patient is being neglected or abused by her parents; situations that would warrant separation and referral to foster care. It would be inappropriate to recommend family counseling for a cultural belief that is not a delusional disorder and would not be sensitive to cross-cultural beliefs.
30. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the treatment of psychotic disorders during pregnancy?
A. Low potency antipsychotics are believed to have lower teratogenicity compared to higher potency antipsychotics.
B. First-trimester use of mood stabilizers (such as lithium, carbamazepine, or valproic acid) is considered safe.
C. Antidepressant use during pregnancy is recommended and completely safe.
D. There is no need to avoid routine benzodiazepine use during pregnancy.
E. Non-pharmacologic treatment methods are preferable during pregnancy.
View Answer
E. As our knowledge of the effects of most psychotropic medications on the developing fetuses is limited, nonpharmacologic treatments (e.g., psychotherapy, support groups, lifestyle modification, etc.) should be the preferred choice whenever possible. Higher potency antipsychotics are believed to confer lower risk of congenital malformation than low potency antipsychotics. Also, extrapyramidal symptoms and anticholinergic agents are associated with increased risk of congenital anomalies. First trimester lithium use has been associated with increased risk of congenital malformations, notably cardiac anomalies (Ebstein’s anomaly). Valproic acid and carbamazepine are associated with increased incidence of fetal neural tube defects due to their anti-folate effect. Of note, bipolar women not treated with mood stabilizers during pregnancy are at increased risk for postpartum decompensation. Antidepressants should also be approached with the risk:benefit ratio in mind. Fluoxetine and TCA have been studied and were found to have increased risk for transient perinatal symptoms in newborns. Studies suggest that antidepressants are not associated with an increased risk of major malformations, but most studies are limited or small, and none are definitive. Many antidepressants have not been adequately studied during pregnancy, and MAOIs increase the risk of hypertensive crisis. Although some consider the judicious use of benzodiazepines during pregnancy safe, it is controversial, and some studies show an association with cleft palate (especially for alprazolam and diazepam). Newborns may also be at risk for intoxication or withdrawal.
31. A patient with chronic renal failure and on dialysis presents with recent history of personality changes, hallucinations, dysarthria, and dyspraxia associated with myoclonic jerks. Which of the following most likely contributed to this presentation?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Selenium
D. Aluminum
E. None of the above
View Answer
D. Aluminum is the offending agent in dialysis dementia, being a contaminant of dialysis fluid or a component of phosphate-binding compounds.
32. An 18-year-old college student is studying for the current semester’s final exams. In order to stay awake studying into the wee hours of the morning, she consumes multiple cups of black coffee. Just as she is about to lie down for an hour or two of sleep, she begins to feel restless and nervous. Her stomach becomes upset and she finds it necessary to
make multiple trips to the bathroom. Despite believing that she should really take a nap, she is unable to fall asleep as thoughts race through her mind. She becomes fearful that in this state, she is likely to fail her exam in the morning. She is otherwise healthy, has no prior psychiatric history, and is not taking any medications. Given her symptoms, approximately how much caffeine is she likely to have consumed?
make multiple trips to the bathroom. Despite believing that she should really take a nap, she is unable to fall asleep as thoughts race through her mind. She becomes fearful that in this state, she is likely to fail her exam in the morning. She is otherwise healthy, has no prior psychiatric history, and is not taking any medications. Given her symptoms, approximately how much caffeine is she likely to have consumed?
A. <25 mg
B. 50 to 100 mg
C. 250 to 500 mg
D. 1 to 5 g
E. >10 g
View Answer
C. The DSM-IV-TR specifies diagnostic criteria for caffeine intoxication, including the recent consumption of an amount of caffeine usually in excess of 250 mg. Clinical signs and symptoms associated with caffeine intoxication include restlessness, nervousness, excitement, insomnia, flushing, diuresis, gastrointestinal disturbance, muscle twitching, rambling flow of thought and speech, tachycardia, periods of inexhaustibility, and psychomotor agitation. Consumption of more than 1 g of caffeine is likely to additionally cause confusion, cardiac arrhythmias, tinnitus, and visual hallucinations. Consumption of more than 10 g of caffeine can cause generalized tonic-clonic seizures, respiratory failure, and death. On the positive side, ingestion of 50 to 100 mg of caffeine can produce increased alertness, a mild sense of well-being, and a sense of improved verbal and motor performance.
33. Based on the demographic data, which of the following individuals is most likely to be addicted to cocaine?
A. A 45-year-old woman who is a homemaker
B. A 25-year-old unemployed man living in an urban area
C. A 13-year-old high school student in a rural setting
D. A 75-year-old nursing home resident with dementia
E. A 35-year-old manual laborer living in the Pacific Northwest
View Answer
B. While cocaine use occurs in all socioeconomic demographics, the highest prevalence is in males between the ages of 20 to 30 years, who are unemployed, live in urban areas, and have no more than a high school education.
34. According to the DSM-IV-TR all of the following disorders are classified as learning disorders EXCEPT:
A. Reading Disorder
B. Stuttering
C. Mathematics Disorder
D. Disorder of Written Communication
E. Learning Disorder, Not Otherwise Specified
View Answer
B. The DSM-IV-TR classifies all of the above disorders as learning disorders except Stuttering which is classified as a Communication Disorder.
35. Which of the following factors would favor a better long-term prognosis in an individual diagnosed with Schizophrenia?
A. Social isolation
B. A history of childhood behavioral problems
C. Prior history of psychiatric treatment
D. Being married
E. Longer duration of psychotic episode
View Answer
D. Being unmarried, along with social isolation, longer duration of psychotic episode, and a history of childhood behavioral problems and prior psychiatric treatment are the five most powerful indicators of poor outcome in Schizophrenia, according to the World Health Organization International Pilot Study on Schizophrenia. Other poor prognostic factors in Schizophrenia include younger age at onset, male gender, low socioeconomic status, positive family history of Schizophrenia, a history of peri-natal complications, poor premorbid functioning, insidious onset, chronic course, clear sensorium, negative symptoms, lack of mood disturbance, neurological soft signs, and structural brain abnormalities. Being married is a relatively protective factor in predicting long-term outcome in Schizophrenia. Even with modern treatment, less than one third to one half of patients will have a recovery of any kind.
36. Which of the following regarding naltrexone therapy for Alcohol Dependence is NOT TRUE?
A. It is given in a dose of 50 mg orally per day.
B. It can be administered concurrently with opioid analgesics in patients with severe pain.
C. It is contraindicated in patients with acute hepatitis or liver failure.
D. Effective response is usually evident in 10 days or less.
E. It should be discontinued in patients who have not responded in 10 days.
View Answer
B. Naltrexone is an opiate receptor antagonist that reduces craving in alcohol dependent patients. Given at a dose of 50 mg/day orally, it is contraindicated in patients receiving concurrent opioid analgesic (it inhibits and renders opioid analgesics ineffective) and liver impairments. Naltrexone is indicated in patients who crave alcohol but are motivated to quit drinking. Naltrexone leads to reduced craving or drinking in positive responders in 7 to 10 days, failure to respond in 10 days is suggestive of failed therapy and an indication for discontinuation.
37. Which one of the following is TRUE of buprenorphine?
A. Buprenorphine is a full agonist at the mu-opioid receptor.
B. It has a low affinity for and a fast dissociation from mu-opioid receptors.
C. Buprenorphine displaces other opioids from the mu receptor, and can cause withdrawal symptoms in patients who have used opioids recently.
D. Its oral formulation has excellent bioavailability.
E. Its mean plasma elimination half-life is 10 hours.
View Answer
C. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist of the mu-opioid receptor. It is different from a full opioid agonist, like methadone and heroin, in that the receptor activation increases as the dose increases until it reaches a plateau. For full opioid agonists, higher doses continues to create greater receptor activation. Because of this partial activation, chronic opioid users are less likely to abuse buprenorphine. It has high affinity for and a slow dissociation from mu-opioid receptors and can block other opioids temporarily. Due to its high affinity, buprenorphine displaces opioids from the mu receptor, causing withdrawal in patients who have used opioids recently. It is absorbed through gastrointestinal and mucosal membranes, but the oral formulation has poor bioavailability due to its extensive metabolism in the gastrointestinal tract. Sublingual buprenorphine has a bioavailability ranging from 30% to 50% of the intravenous dose. Maximal plasma concentration that is reached within 1 hour of oral dosing and it is metabolized primarily in the liver via the cytochrome P450. The majority of buprenorphine and its metabolites are excreted in the feces; less than 30% are eliminated in the urine. Its mean plasma elimination half-life is 37 hours.
38. Which psychodynamic characteristic of Schizoid Personality structure is incorrectly paired?
A. Central preoccupation: Fear of closeness versus longing for closeness
B. Central affects: Emotional pain when overstimulated
C. Central pathogenic belief about self: Dependency and love are dangerous
D. Central pathogenic belief about others: People who really get to know me will reject me
E. Central defenses: Withdrawal into fantasy and idiosyncratic preoccupations
View Answer
D. Individuals with Schizoid Personality structure believe that the social world is dangerously engulfing. They are highly sensitive and reactive to interpersonal stimulation, which they tend to respond to with defensive withdrawal. They easily feel in danger of being engulfed, enmeshed, controlled, intruded upon, and traumatized; dangers that they associate with becoming involved with other people. In contrast, individuals with depressive personality structure believe that people who really get to know them will reject them because they believe that there is something essentially bad or incomplete about them. When mistreated, rejected, or abandoned, they tend to believe that they are somehow at fault. This belief may be a residue of the familiar tendency of children in difficult family situations to deny that their caregivers are negligent, abusive, or fragile—ideas that are too frightening. Instead, they attribute their suffering to their own badness—something they can try to change.
39. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE of behavioral treatments for sleep?
A. Behavioral treatments are most helpful for sleep latency and time awake after sleep onset.
B. Relaxation and BF are both effective in alleviating insomnia.
C. Cognitive forms of relaxation such as meditation are slightly better than somatic forms of relaxation such as progressive muscle relaxation (PMR).
D. Sleep restriction is better than stimulus control and multimodal treatments for reducing insomnia.
E. Improvements seen at treatment completion are maintained at follow-ups averaging 6 months in duration.
View Answer
D. Available evidence indicates that behavioral treatments produce improvements in sleep architecture, which are most pronounced for sleep latency and time awake after sleep onset. Relaxation and BF were both found to be effective in alleviating insomnia. Cognitive forms of relaxation, such as meditation, were slightly better than somatic forms of relaxation such as PMR. Sleep restriction, stimulus control, and multimodal treatment were the three most effective treatments in reducing insomnia. Improvements seen at treatment completion were maintained at follow-ups averaging 6 months in duration. Although these effects are statistically significant, it is questionable whether the magnitude of the improvements in sleep onset and total sleep time are clinically meaningful. Integration of behavioral and relaxation approaches into the treatment of chronic pain and insomnia can be synergestic.
40. Which one of the following is TRUE of bupropion?
A. It is an SNRI.
B. It is excreted unchanged by the kidneys.
C. It can be used concomitantly with MAOIs.
D. Its combination with nicotine replacement therapies can cause hypotension.
E. It is a category B in pregnancy.
View Answer
E. Bupropion is a dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It is about twice as potent inhibitor of dopamine uptake than norepinephrine uptake. Bupropion is metabolized in the liver. It has at least three active metabolites: hydroxybupropion, threohydrobupropion and erythrohydrobupropion. These active metabolites are further metabolized to inactive metabolites and eliminated through excretion into the urine. The half-life of bupropion and hydroxybupropion is 20 hours. Threohydrobupropion’s half-life is 37 hours and erythrohydrobupropion’s is 33 hours. The therapeutic benefit of bupropion can be attributed to its active metabolites. It is contraindicated in epilepsy and other conditions that lower the seizure threshold (alcohol withdrawal, active brain tumors, etc.). It should not be use concomitantly with MAOIs. When switching medications, it is important that there be a short period of about 2 weeks between the medications in order to reduce risk of complications that might lead to things such as a decrease in seizure threshold. It should be used with caution in patients with AN and bulimia as they have decreased seizure thresholds. Bupropion is primarily metabolized to hydroxybupropion by the CYP2B6 isoenzyme. Combination of bupropion with nicotine replacement therapies can elevate blood pressure, so it is recommended that the patient’s blood pressure is monitored. It is a category B in pregnancy.
41. Which of the following is the best predictor of future violent behavior in a patient?
A. Intense paranoia
B. Substance Intoxication or Abuse
C. Antisocial Personality
D. History of fire-setting, enuresis, and cruelty to animals
E. None of the above
View Answer
E. Psychiatrists are not able to accurately predict future behavior of patients, but are able to assess the risk of future violent behavior. Each of the other answers represents risk factors for an increased probability of future violence. Not listed, a prior history of violent behavior is perhaps the strongest risk factor for future violent behavior. Male gender is another strong risk factor for future violent behavior.
42. Which of the following clinical findings is NOT associated with bulbar palsy?
A. Nasal intonation during speech
B. Dysphagia
C. Loss of gag reflex
D. Depressed jaw jerk reflex
E. Loss of taste in anterior two thirds of tongue
View Answer
E. Bulbar palsy is caused by cranial nerve injury within the brainstem or along the course of the nerves. Patients usually have a thick, nasal intonation while talking, dysphagia due to impaired palatal and pharyngeal movement, loss of the gag reflex, and, in some cases, a depressed jaw jerk reflex. If the bulbar damage is extensive, the medullary respiratory center might be affected and patients may present with respiratory depression. Taste sensation in the two thirds of the tongue is provided by the facial nerve (CNVII).
43. A 62-year-old man with hypertension and diabetes, but no past psychiatric history, presents to the emergency department (ED) because of a change in mental status over the past several days. His daughter states he is usually happy and enjoys spending time with his grandchildren and playing word puzzles, but over the past few days has been apathetic, refuses to go out or play, and has been tired and had difficulty concentrating. Physical examination is unremarkable. An MRI of the brain would likely reveal a lesion in which of the following structures?
A. A lesion in the frontal lobe
B. A lesion in the occipital lobe
C. A lesion in the parietal lobe
D. A lesion in the temporal lobe
E. No lesion, as this patient has a primary depressive disorder
View Answer
A. Given that this patient’s depressive presentation is recent and sudden, it is likely due to a medical disorder rather than a primary psychiatric disorder. Lesions of the frontal lobe may present with a clinical syndrome indistinguishable from a depressive illness. The frontal lobes play a major role in personality, especially in acquired social behavior, and lesions here often result in a change in personality as an apathetic dementia results. Occipital lobe tumors are associated with hemianopia and unformed visual disturbances. Parietal lesions present with language and speech difficulties if in the dominant hemisphere, or with visuospatial integration problems and neglect syndromes. Temporal lobe lesions are also associated with language disturbance from the dominant hemisphere, olfactory and partial-complex seizures, and visual field deficits.
44. Which one of the following statements about the concept of linkage analysis is correct?
A. It is essential to have a candidate gene in mind before beginning the study.
B. Polygenic traits are difficult to map with linkage analysis.
C. Classic linkage analysis is useful in tracking most psychiatric disorders.
D. Individual genes always independently assort.
E. It depends on the identification of a chromosomal abnormality.
View Answer
B. Linkage analysis is one of a number of techniques that molecular geneticists use to map the location of genes that contribute to psychiatric disorders. It depends on the law of independent assortment. Genes are typically inherited independently (because of recombination and segregation), unless they are located close together on a chromosome. When genes are relatively close together, the likelihood of recombination is proportional to the distance between the genes. It is an essentially hypothesis-free approach (i.e., it is not essential to have a candidate gene in mind before beginning). Classical linkage analysis is most useful in mapping traits caused by single genes, and has to be modified for use in polygenic disorders, which include most psychiatric disorders. Identification of a chromosomal abnormality is not necessary; this is important for cytogenetic studies.
45. Which of the following are prognostic indicators for traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
A. Duration of loss of consciousness (LOC)
B. Duration of post-traumatic amnesia (PTA)
C. Glasgow coma scale
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
View Answer
D. The severity of TBI is perhaps the most important determinant of outcome. Severity is estimated by one of the following three parameters: length of LOC, duration of PTA, and the Glasgow Coma Scale. The longer the length of LOC, the worse the prognosis of a given TBI, as this represents a more severe TBI. PTA is defined as the time interval between the attainment of full consciousness following TBI and the time at which new memories are formed. Longer periods of PTA portends worse prognosis. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a 15-item scale with scores ranging from 3 to 15. The lower the score the more severe the injury.
46. Which is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS)?
A. Glutamate
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Glycine
D. Norepinephrine
E. Dopamine
View Answer
A. Glutamate (an amino acid) is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. Glucose and glutamine are converted to, via the enzyme glucan mayonnaise, and to glutamate. It is widely distributed in the CNS, and receptors include N-methyl-D-aspartic acid (NMDA), AMPA, and kainate receptors (each inotropic), and some metabotropic receptors. Excess glutamatergic stimulation may result in seizures or neuronal damage (kindling). Decarboxylase of glutamate via glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) forms GABA, a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Glycine is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord. Norepinephrine and dopamine function vary depending on involved tracts.
47. Which of the following movement disorders carries the highest probability of genetic transmission for the child of an affected patient?
A. Parkinson’s disease (PD)
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. Sydenham’s chorea
E. Wilson’s disease
View Answer
B. Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, thus each child of a parent who is carrying a defective gene has a 50% risk of inheriting the disease gene. There are several genes that are known to cause PD but they account for a very small minority of cases. Parkinson’s mutations are the most common genetic cause of PD (causes young-onset PD) but still account for less than 1% of all cases, and is thought to be inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Sydenham’s chorea is a neurologic movement disorder that frequently occurs in children or adolescents following acute rheumatic fever, and appears to result from an autoimmune or antibody-mediated inflammatory response involving certain regions of the basal ganglia and is not genetically transmitted. Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait and causes neurological and psychiatric symptoms and liver disease. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is inherited as an x-linked recessive trait and involves an enzyme deficiency that results in hyperuricemia, with associated mental retardation, choreoathetosis, and self-destructive biting of the lips and fingers.
48. A 28-year-old man presents to the ED after a severe motor vehicle accident. He has stable vital signs, but has left-sided leg paresis with hyperactive deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and a Babinski sign. He also has impairment of vibration and position sense of the left leg, and loss of temperature and pain sensation in the right leg. This patient’s condition is most consistent with which of the following spinal cord injuries?
A. Anterior-cord syndrome
B. Brown-Sequard syndrome
C. Central cord transection
D. Complete cord transection
E. Posterior-cord syndrome
View Answer
B. This patient presents with signs consistent with Brown-Sequard syndrome, which refers to hemisection of the spinal cord. The following signs are found in this syndrome: ipsilateral paresis, ipsilateral corticospinal signs (hyperactive DTRs and Babinski), contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation (from injury of the spinothalamic tract), and ipsilateral impairment of vibration and joint-position sense (from posterior column injury). The loss of pain sensation contralateral to the paresis is the readily identifiable hallmark of this syndrome. Complete transection of the cord results in permanent bilateral motor, sensory, and autonomic paralysis below the level of the lesion. The central-cord syndrome is characterized by weakness that is more marked in the arms than the legs, with urinary retention and sensory loss below the level of the lesion. The arms or hands may be paralyzed or moderately weak. In the legs there may be severe paresis or only minimal weakness, overactive tendon reflexes, and Babinski signs. Micturition may be normal. While complete-cord transection may be diagnosed at first because there seems to be no cord function below the level of the lesion, careful testing may reveal sacral sparing, showing an incomplete lesion. In the anterior-cord syndrome, immediate complete paralysis is associated with mild-to-moderate impairment of pinprick response and light touch below the injury, with preservation of position and vibration sense (from dorsal columns). This syndrome may be caused by an acutely ruptured disc, fracture, or dislocation in the cervical region impinging on the anterior spinal artery and compromising blood flow to the anterior cervical spine. The posterior-cord syndrome is characterized by pain and paresthesia in the neck, upper arms, and trunk, which is usually symmetric and has a burning quality. The sensory manifestations may be combined with mild paresis of the arms and hands, but the long tracts are only slightly affected.
49. Which one of the following is the most common type of diabetic neuropathy?
A. Polyneuropathy
B. Autonomic neuropathy
C. Mononeuropathy affecting the oculomotor and median nerve
D. Thoracic and lumbar polyradiculopathies
E. Mononeuritis multiplex
View Answer
A. Diabetic polyneuropathy is the most common type of neuropathy in the Western world affecting up to half of all diabetic patients. Longer the duration of diabetes, greater is the chance of the patient developing neuropathy. Diabetic neuropathy can be classified into various distinct clinical syndromes which are characterized by a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. The common types of diabetic neuropathies are distal symmetric polyneuropathy, autonomic neuropathy, mononeuropathy mainly affecting the oculomotor and median nerves, thoracic and lumbar polyradiculopathies, and mononeuritis multiplex.
50. You have a 49-year-old patient who was diagnosed with Huntington’s disease 4 months ago. He has been managing his illness well, but recently his involuntary movements have begun to interfere with his activities of daily life. Which of the following medications would be helpful in treating his involuntary movements?
A. Pramipexole
B. Benztropine
C. Ropinirole
D. Haloperidol
E. Levodopa
View Answer
D. Huntington’s disease is a rare autosomal dominate neurodegenerative disease. There are no available disease-modifying treatments, only treatments to manage symptoms associated with the disease. Huntington’s chorea is characterized by involuntary muscle movements usually of the limbs that can be somewhat reduced by the D2 blockade action of haloperidol. Pramipexole, ropinirole, and L-dopa all act to increase dopamine transmission and would likely worsen Huntington’s chorea. Benztropine would likely have no effect on Huntington’s chorea.
51. A 55-year-old patient with PD is thinking of undergoing deep brain stimulation (DBS). When counseling this patient on DBS, which one of the following statements should you make to describe this procedure?
A. DBS of the globus pallidus (GPi) is the treatment of choice for patients with intractable PD.
B. DBS is destructive and can only be done as a unilateral procedure.
C. It can be modified over time to deal with changing or progressing symptoms.
D. It is most helpful for axial symptoms.
E. It does not slow the progression of the underlying neurodegenerative disease.
View Answer
C. DBS of the STN is an effective therapeutic modality for well selected patients with medically intractable symptoms of PD. GPi DBS, although a safe treatment, is yet to be studied on its strength of effect to treat patients with PD. DBS is nondestructive and may be a bilateral procedure of low neurologic morbidity. It can be modified over time to deal with changing or progressing patient symptoms, but it is not helpful for axial symptoms (i.e., such as postural instability or speech problems) and it does not slow the progression of the underlying neurodegenerative disease. It is also expensive and can introduce infection into the brain. It may also have mechanical breakdowns and need reprogramming.
52. Each of the following medications induces the hepatic metabolism of other drugs EXCEPT:
A. Phenytoin
B. Phenobarbital
C. Carbamazepine
D. Primidone
E. Divalproex sodium
View Answer
E. Many drugs prescribed by neurologists and psychiatrists have significant drug–drug interactions of which clinicians must be aware. Common inducers of hepatic drug metabolism include phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, primidone, and rifampin. Of the list above, only divalproex sodium (Depakote) is an inhibitor of drug metabolism. Other inhibitors of drug metabolism that psychiatrists in particular should be aware of include SSRIs (except citalopram and escitalopram), TCA, bupropion, methylphenidate, and disulfiram.
53. Guidance, care, productivity, and creativity are characteristics of which stage in Erik Erikson’s Epigenetic Model of Development?
A. Identity versus role confusion
B. Intimacy versus isolation
C. Generativity versus stagnation
D. Ego integrity versus despair
E. Industry versus inferiority
View Answer
C. Erik Erikson described generativity as a process by which adults contribute to the next generation through guidance, care, productivity, creativity, and raising children.
54. Which one of the following diseases is NOT associated with the development of neurofibrillary tangles?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Dementia pugilistica
C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
D. Normal aging
E. Huntington’s disease
View Answer
E. Neurofibrillary tangles are fibrillary intracellular deposits found in dendrites of neurons, especially pyramidal neurons. These pathological lesions are not unique to Alzheimer’s disease, and have also been found in normal aging, some frontotemporal dementia subtypes, dementia pugilistica, and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. Neurofibrillary tangles are not commonly associated with Huntington’s disease.
55. According to generally accepted current psychoanalytic theory, which of the following statements about therapist self-disclosure and countertransference is correct?
A. It is generally a good idea to discuss process rather than self disclose.
B. If a patient is making you angry, you should say so without hesitation.
C. If a patient demands to know the therapist’s personal feelings, it is often more harmful not to disclose.
D. There are well-accepted psychoanalytic guidelines about policies of self-disclosure.
E. Self-disclosure by the therapist usually constitutes a boundary violation.
View Answer
A. A psychiatrist cannot avoid some manner of self-disclosure, even if it is just their office decoration and style of dress. Most agree that some form of self-disclosure is not only unavoidable, but also often useful, but there are no generally accepted technical guidelines. Generally, if the therapist’s feelings are obvious to the patient, such as if the therapist has become angry, it is disingenuous not to disclose. One should still disclose with caution, and it is generally a good idea to discuss process. While some have argued for select disclosure of countertransference love, most argue for extreme caution, as such feelings can be deeply disturbing to the patient, even without actualization in action.
56. Which of the following conditions is NOT required to find a physician liable in a medical malpractice case?
A. A professional treatment relationship existed under which the physician owed the patient a duty.
B. The physician deviated from the standard of care in breaching a duty to the patient.
C. The physician deviated from published guidelines in the care of the patient.
D. Actual damages occurred, from which the patient suffered.
E. Any damages were directly caused by the deviation from standard practice.
View Answer
C. Although published clinical practice guidelines may be considered in malpractice cases, they are not comprehensive or without fault, and should never supersede professional judgment. It is not required that the physician deviated from guidelines for malpractice. Any carefully crafted guideline will have an opening disclaimer that it does not represent the standard of care. The four requirements for malpractice are summed up in the remaining answers. They may also be described in the four D’s of malpractice: duty, deviation, damages, and direct causation.
57. You are evaluating a patient for cognitive decline with a movement disorder. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the head without contrast reveals atrophy of the caudate nuclei and enlarged, bat–wing, lateral ventricles. Given this information, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. PD
D. Wilson’s disease
E. None of the above
View Answer
A. This patient has Huntington’s disease. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant allele on chromosome 4. Patients develop dementia and chorea, with deficient GABA activity. Huntington’s disease is also an excessive trinucleotide repeat disorder. Radiological findings in these patients include the atrophy of caudate nuclei and the presence of bat wing lateral ventricles. Other excessive trinucleotide repeat disorders include myotonic dystrophy, Fragile-X syndrome, Friedrich’s ataxia, and the spinocerebellar degenerations.
58. A patient diagnosed with Schizophrenia is most likely to meet criteria for comorbid dependence on which of the following substances?
A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Cannabis
D. Nicotine
E. Phencyclidine
View Answer
D. Nicotine dependence amongst patients with schizophrenia is extremely common and has been found to range from 75% to 90%. Nicotine is by far the most common substance of dependence for patients with Schizophrenia. Comorbidity of Schizophrenia and other substance use disorders is also common. Thirty to fifty percent of patients with Schizophrenia have been found to meet the diagnostic criteria for Alcohol Abuse/Dependence. Other commonly used substances are cannabis (approximately 15% to 25%) and cocaine (approximately 5% to 10%).
59. Abrupt cessation of daily cocaine use can result in all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Depressed mood
B. Difficulty concentrating
C. Increased dreaming
D. Arrhythmias
E. Increased sleep
View Answer
D. Unlike opiates and sedatives, cocaine withdrawal includes mainly psychological symptoms and is not usually medically serious. Depressed mood, problems concentrating, increased dreaming (due to increased rapid eye movement [REM] sleep), anhedonia, fatigue, and cocaine craving are often experienced. Occasionally, an initial period of severe symptoms occurs, during which the patient may become severely depressed and suicidal. However, typically symptoms are milder, and resolve within 2 weeks.
60. A 10-year-old boy is brought in for evaluation by his parents for school related problems. His parents report that the child’s teachers have reported that he has been exhibiting disruptive behavior in class, with difficulties in concentration. His teachers have noted that he is also reluctant to read in class. After an extensive evaluation, it is determined that the child has a Reading Disorder. Given this information, what is the best intervention for this child’s reading difficulties?
A. Initiate therapy with a stimulant medication
B. Initiate therapy with an antidepressant medication
C. Recommend the child be home schooled
D. Recommend remedial education therapy
E. No specific interventions required at this time
View Answer
D. The treatment of choice for Reading Disorder is first an accurate assessment of the child’s specific deficits and weakness and matching them appropriately to an educational approach. A specific method developed by Samuel Orton suggests therapeutic attention to the mastery of simple phonetic units, followed by the blending of these units to words and sentences. An approach that systematically engages several senses is recommended. Children should be placed in a grade as close as possible to their social functional level and should receive special remedial work in reading. Coexisting emotional and behavioral problems should be treated by appropriate psychotherapeutic means. Parent counseling may also be helpful.
61. Which of the following statements regarding the epidemiology of Schizophrenia is NOT TRUE?
A. Women generally develop schizophrenia at an earlier age than men.
B. Prevalence rates for schizophrenia are relatively consistent worldwide.
C. Diagnosis of schizophrenia has been associated with lower socioeconomic status.
D. Schizophrenia is associated with increased rates of mortality.
E. About one in three people with schizophrenia will attempt suicide, and about one in ten will complete suicide.
View Answer
A. Although the sex ratio for rates of Schizophrenia is still debated, it does seem that men generally develop Schizophrenia at an earlier age than women. Despite some pockets of high and low rates of Schizophrenia, with clearly defined criteria the incidence and prevalence is relatively consistent worldwide. The association with lower socioeconomic class is thought to be explained by the downward drift hypothesis. Even with improved treatments, persons with Schizophrenia do suffer higher mortality rates, largely due to suicide and accidents, but also from poorer general medical health. Rates of attempted and completed suicide remain high in Schizophrenia.
62. Which of the following correctly describes the behavioral changes related to Alcohol Dependence treatment?
A. Drinker is in denial or has no desire to effect lifestyle changes: Pre-contemplation
B. Drinker knows alcohol use is a problem but appears ambivalent towards lifestyle changes: Contemplation
C. Drinker makes half-hearted changes: Preparation
D. Drinker consolidates new behaviors: Maintenance
E. All of the above
View Answer
E. Prochaska and DiClemente have provided a model for change in addictive behaviors. According to this paradigm, patients move through several distinct stages beginning with problematic drinking and ending with stable sobriety. Movement through these stages may be progressive but not necessarily chronologic. It is important for clinicians to recognize the specific stage a given patient has attained to be able to deploy the most effective motivational change strategy. In the precontemplation stage, patients are in denial of their drinking difficulties and have no desire to engage in meaningful lifestyle changes to address their drinking problem. Patients in contemplation stage are no longer in denial but evidence profound ambivalence towards the habit: they acknowledge all the ill effects of excessive alcohol consumption but are unable to take specific remedial actions. Patients who have made a decision to quit drinking and indeed able to make gestures (initiate small changes) are said to be in the preparation stage, whereas patients who go beyond making symbolic gestures and actually initiate specific changes, including accepting pharmacologic or psychological interventions are in the action stage. In the maintenance stage, new behavior pattern is applied consistently and consolidated. Because maintenance of sobriety is fraught with several remissions and relapses, the authors recognize that positive changes that have necessitated sobriety may be abandoned (i.e., the relapse stage).
63. A 25-year-old African-American who is on 90 mg a day of methadone maintenance therapy for his opioid dependence enquires about treatment of his addiction with buprenorphine. When discussing this treatment option with him, you should inform him about all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Methadone maintenance therapy is cheaper than buprenorphine maintenance therapy.
B. Buprenorphine maintenance therapy is more effective in patients with higher tolerance to opioids.
C. Buprenorphine maintenance therapy has lower treatment retention rates than methadone maintenance therapy.
D. Buprenorphine has lower risk of toxicity at higher doses when compared to methadone.
E. Buprenorphine has less severe withdrawal symptoms after discontinuation when compared to methadone.
View Answer
B. Studies comparing buprenorphine to methadone maintenance therapy for opioid dependence have shown that buprenorphine (less than 40 mg) is as effective as low-dose methadone (less than 40 mg). However, high-dose methadone (greater than 60 mg) may be more effective than buprenorphine. Hence, patients requiring higher methadone doses may not be good candidates for buprenorphine. A Cochrane meta-analysis reviewed the use of buprenorphine as maintenance treatment. This review demonstrated the superior efficacy of buprenorphine maintenance treatment when compared with placebo, as well as treatment retention and heroin suppression efficacy comparable with that of low-dose methadone maintenance. However, high-dose methadone demonstrated superior heroin suppression efficacy compared with buprenorphine. Advantages of buprenorphine over methadone include higher doses having lower risk of toxicity, potential effectiveness at less than recommended daily dosage, less severe withdrawal symptoms after discontinuation, less abuse potential, and more accessible for office-based treatment programs. Advantages of methadone maintenance over buprenorphine maintenance therapy include lower cost of treatment, more effective in patients with higher tolerances, and higher treatment retention rates.
64. Which transference reaction is incorrectly paired with its personality structure?
A. Manic character: Patients need and deserve to be rescued
B. Depressive character: Patients idealize and respect the clinician
C. Masochistic character: Patients fear that the therapist is an uncaring authority who will abandon them
D. Manic character: Patients appear insightful and fascinating
E. Depressive character: Patients anticipate disapproval
View Answer
A. Masochistic patients tend to reenact with a therapist the drama of the child who needs care but can only get it if they are demonstrably suffering and helpless. The therapist may be seen as a parent who must be persuaded to save and comfort the patient, who is too weak, threatened, and unprotected. The patient’s subjective task is thus to persuade the therapist that they both need and deserve to be rescued. Coexisting with these aims is the fear that the therapist is an uncaring, critical, selfish, and abusive authority. They fear that the therapist will expose their worthlessness, blame the victim for being victimized, and abandon the relationship. To combat such fears, they try to make obvious both their helplessness and their efforts to be good. On the other hand, manic patients tend to be winsome, insightful, and fascinating. They also tend to be confusing and exhausting. Depressive patients attach quickly to the therapist, ascribe benevolence to their aims, work hard to be “good” in the patient role, and appreciate bits of insight as if they were morsels of life-sustaining food. They tend to idealize the clinician as morally good, in contrast to their subjective badness. Depressive patients try hard not to be burdensome. At the same time, they project onto the therapist their internal critics or harsh superego. Depressive patients are subject to the chronic belief that the therapist’s concern and respect would vanish if they really knew the patient.
65. Which one of the following is TRUE of varenicline?
A. It is a partial agonist selective for the alfa4 beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptor subtype.
B. It has a half-life of 8 hours.
C. Dosage adjustments are required in patients with hepatic insufficiency.
D. It is a known inhibitor of the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
E. It is a known teratogen.
View Answer
A. Varenicline acts as a partial agonist selective for the alfa4 beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptor subtype. Maximal plasma concentrations are reached within 3 to 4 hours and it reaches a steady-state concentration within 4 days. It has a half-life of 24 hours and its oral bioavailability is not affected by food or time of administration. It has linear pharmacokinetics and low plasma protein binding (≤20%) regardless of a patient’s age and renal function. Pharmacokinetic studies in the elderly have demonstrated activity similar to that observed in young adults. Dosage adjustments are not required in patients with hepatic insufficiency. It has no clinically significant drug–drug interactions. In vitro studies do not demonstrate a cytochrome P450 enzyme effect. The safety of coadministration of nicotine replacement products with varenicline has not been established. No significant differences in dosing have been established with regards to age, race, gender, tobacco use, or concurrent use of other drugs. Clinical trials indicate that varenicline was superior to sustained-release bupropion and placebo in two trials with regards to the incidence of abstinence, adverse event rate, and tolerability. Varenicline has also been shown to increase long-term abstinence from cigarette smoking compared with placebo. Nausea was the most common adverse event associated with varenicline use. A dose reduction should be considered in patients with intolerable nausea. Varenicline has been designated as a pregnancy category C drug. Since there are no studies that have been conducted to investigate whether varenicline is excreted in human milk, it should be avoided in lactating women. Teratogenicity with varenicline is unknown.
66. A 37-year-old man is brought to the emergency room (ER) after attacking his wife because he believed that she was possessed by evil spirits. A urine toxicology screen is positive for cocaine. All of the following are true of cocaine intoxication EXCEPT:
A. Most patients will have dilated pupils.
B. Patients are at increased risk of developing strokes.
C. Patients are at increased risk of developing seizures.
D. Patients are at increased risk of developing hyperthermia.
E. Given increased risk of morbidity and mortality, patients should be hospitalized if their cocaine-induced paranoia lasts for more than 8 hours.
View Answer
E. During intoxication, patients will typically have dilated pupils and, at high doses, are at increased risk of developing autonomic instability and hyperthermia, strokes, and seizures. Patients experiencing cocaine toxicity, especially chronic users, may experience paranoia as this patient has done. If patients continue to exhibit paranoia after 12 hours, one should consider hospitalization and, if not, ensure that the patient is discharged to the care of someone reliable.
67. According to the Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) survey, which of the following psychiatric diagnoses, is associated with the greatest base rate of violence?
A. Bipolar Disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Major Depression
D. Cannabis-related disorders
E. No psychiatric diagnosis
View Answer
D. Psychiatric diagnoses fall into the category of static risk factors. According to ECA data, the base rate of violent behavior amongst those without a psychiatric diagnosis is 2%. Amongst those with a DSM-III psychiatric diagnosis of OCD, Panic Disorder, Major Depression, Bipolar Disorder, or Schizophrenia, the base rate is about 12%. The base rate of violence jumps dramatically for any substance related disorder (with cannabis-related disorders at 19%, alcohol-related disorders at 25%, and other drug-related disorders at 35%). Do not be fooled that marijuana is calming and reduces rates of violence. Substance-related disorders react synergistically with other diagnoses to increase violence rates even further. Substance abuse of any kind is the most significant axis I risk factor for violent behavior. Chronic abuse and intoxication are the most important. Half to two thirds of violent offenders were drinking just before committing the violent act, and an additional 20% to 25% similarly used other drugs.
68. A 55-year-old man has tongue deviation to the right, when he is asked to stick out his tongue during a neurological examination. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which cranial nerve is most likely to be affected in his case?

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