Questions and Answers by Chapter


15







Questions and Answers by Chapter



Chapter 1: Basics of EEG Monitoring in Pediatric Critical Care





1.  The EEG signal represents which of the following?


      a.   Action potentials


      b.   Excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials


      c.   Presynaptic vesicle release


      d.   Sodium-potassium exchange




Answer: b.



The EEG waves we record at the scalp represent the summation of the excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials that impinge on neurons at the cortical surface. The action potential, presynaptic vesicle release, and sodium-potassium exchange do not contribute directly to generation of the EEG signal.


References: Ebersole J, Husain A, Nordli D Jr, eds. Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography. 4th ed. Wolters Kluwer;2014.


Schomer D, Lopes da Silva FH, eds. Niedermeyer’s Electroencephalography: Basic Principles, Clinical Applications, and Related Fields. 6th ed. Wolters Kluwer/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins Health;2011.




2.  Match the electrode abbreviation with its anatomic location.












  

  a.  Fp1


  b.  Cz


  c.  F8


  d.  P7


  1.  Right anterior temporal


  2.  Left frontopolar


  3.  Left posterior temporal


  4.  Central midline








Answer: a-2; b-4; c-1; d-3.



The letter in the electrode name stands for the following: Fp = frontopolar, F = frontal, T = temporal, C = central, P = parietal, O = occipital, z = midline. Electrodes over the left hemisphere are labeled with odd numbers, while electrodes over the right hemisphere are labeled with even numbers. Note that electrodes F7 and F8 do not record activity over the frontal lobe but rather the left and right anterior temporal lobe, respectively. Similarly, the P7 and P8 electrodes do not record activity over the parietal lobe but rather the left and right posterior temporal lobe, respectively. As such, Fp1 = left frontopolar (a-2); Cz = central midline (b-4); F8 = right anterior temporal (c-1); P7 = left posterior temporal (d-3).


References: Acharya JN, Hani AJ, Thirumala PD, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society guideline 3: A proposal for standard montages to be used in clinical EEG. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2016;33:312–316.


Jasper HH. The ten-twenty electrode system of the International Federation. The International Federation of Clinical Neurophysiology. Electroencephalogr Clin Neurophysiol. 1958;10:371–375.




3.  All of the following are commonly used as a reference electrode EXCEPT?


      a.   Average


      b.   Chin


      c.   Cz


      d.   EKG lead




Answer: d.



In a referential montage, each of the electrodes is compared to a location on the body that is felt to be electrically quiet. The ideal reference electrode is one that “includes all of the electrical noise in the ‘electrode of interest’ but none of the electrocerebral activity.” The ideal comparison electrode would cancel out all of the noise from the scalp electrode of interest but would not inadvertently subtract out any of the electrical activity from the brain. Unfortunately, such an ideal reference electrode does not exist and compromises have to be made, but a reference position far enough from the electrode of interest to not contain much of its electrocerebral activity, but close enough to cancel out the common noise signal, is the goal. Possible reference electrode locations include the spinous process of C7 (CS2), the earlobes (A1 [left] and A2 [right]), the nose, the chin (b) or the vertex (Cz) (c). A more complex type of reference electrode can be created using a simple arithmetic average of the electrode set, referred to as an average reference electrode. With this scheme, a voltage that is the average of all of the scalp electrodes is used as the reference (a). The EKG lead contains too much electrical activity to serve as a useful reference (d).


Reference: Libenson M. Practical Approach to Electroencephalography. 1st ed. Saunders;2010.




4.  Match the EEG graphoelement with the age of onset.












  

  a.  Appearance of spindles


  b.  Appearance of vertex waves


  c.  PDR of 6 Hz


  d.  Disappearance of spindle asynchrony


  1.  12 months of age


  2.  1 to 3 months of age


  3.  2 to 6 months of age


  4.  24 months of age








Answer: a-2; b-3; c-1; d-4.



Spindles first appear in infants between 1 and 3 months of age (a-2). They may be prolonged, lasting for up to 10 seconds at this age, and are often asynchronous. Vertex waves first appear shortly thereafter, between 2 and 6 months of age (b-3). Spindles remain asynchronous at this age; spindle asynchrony should no longer be seen after 24 months of age (d-4). The posterior dominant rhythm first appears around 4 months of age, with a typical frequency of 3 to 4 Hz. By 5 months of age the typical frequency is 5 Hz, and by 12 months of age, the typical frequency is 6 Hz with a minimum normal frequency of 5 Hz (c-1).


References: Berry RB, Albertario CL, Harding SM, et al. for the American Academy of Sleep Medicine. The AASM Manual for the Scoring of Sleep and Associated Events: Rules, Terminology and Technical Specifications. Darien, IL: American Academy of Sleep Medicine; 2018. Version 2.5.


Ebersole J, Husain A, Nordli D Jr, eds. Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography. 4th ed. Wolters Kluwer;2014.


Libenson M. Practical Approach to Electroencephalography. 1st ed. Saunders;2010.




5.  Match the stage of sleep with the EEG description.












  

  a.  N1


  b.  N2


  c.  N3


  d.  REM


  1.  Defined by the presence of spindles and K complexes


  2.  At least 20% of the recording is occupied by delta waves


  3.  Sawtooth waves may be present


  4.  Onset marked by vertex waves








Answer: a-4; b-1; c-2; d-3.



Stage 1/N1 sleep is marked by the onset of vertex waves of sleep (a-4). Vertex waves (or v-waves) are sharp transients with maximal negativity over the vertex (Cz) and a field including the adjacent C3 and C4 electrodes. Sleep spindles and K-complexes are the hallmarks of Stage 2/N2 sleep (b-1). At least 20% of the recording is occupied by delta waves in deeper stages of sleep, formerly referred to as Stage 3 and 4, now referred to as N3 (c-2). After 5 months of age, sawtooth waves may be seen during REM sleep as 2 to 5 Hz negative sharp transients in the frontocentral areas (d-3).


References: Berry RB, Albertario CL, Harding SM, et al. for the American Academy of Sleep Medicine. The AASM Manual for the Scoring of Sleep and Associated Events: Rules, Terminology and Technical Specifications. Darien, IL: American Academy of Sleep Medicine; 2018. Version 2.5.


Ebersole J, Husain A, Nordli D Jr, eds. Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography. 4th ed. Wolters Kluwer;2014.


Gibbs, FA, ed. Atlas of Electroencephalography, Vol. I: Normal Controls Addison-Wesley;1950.


Kellaway P, Fox BJ. Electroencephalographic diagnosis of cerebral pathology in infants during sleep. I. Rationale, technique, and the characteristics of normal sleep in infants. J Pediatr. 1952;41:262–287.


Libenson M. Practical Approach to Electroencephalography. 1st ed. Saunders;2010.


Loomis AL, Harvey EN, Hobart GA. Distribution of disturbance-patterns in the human electroencephalogram with special reference to sleep. J Neurophysiol. 1938;1:413–430.




6.  Technical criteria for the diagnosis of electrocerebral inactivity (ECI) include all of the following EXCEPT?


      a.   Sensitivity of 3 μV/mm for 30 minutes of recording


      b.   Bandpass filter settings of 1 to 30 Hz


      c.   Electrode impedances of 100 to 10,000 ohms


      d.   Tapping the electrodes to demonstrate continuity of the EEG circuit




Answer: a.



An ECI recording must fulfill certain technical criteria to ensure that the apparent lack of brain wave activity is genuine, including use of double-distance electrode linkages, sensitivities of 2 μV/mm, not 3 μV/mm (a), for at least 30 minutes of recording, bandpass filter settings of 1 to 30 Hz (b), electrode impedances of 100 to 10,000 ohms (c), tapping electrodes to demonstrate continuity of the EEG circuit (d), and demonstrating a lack of patient reactivity to various stimuli.


Reference: Stecker MM, Sabau D, Sullivan LR, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society guideline 6: Minimum technical standards for EEG recording in suspected cerebral death. Neurodiagn J. 2016;56:276–284.




7.  All of the following are features of burst suppression in children EXCEPT:


      a.   Bursts last for 0.5 to 30 seconds


      b.   Interburst interval amplitude is <10 μV


      c.   Periods of suppression comprise >50% of the recording


      d.   Reactivity to stimulation




Answer: d.



Bursts typically consist of polymorphic generalized spikes or polyspikes with admixed slow waves, last for 0.5 and 30 seconds (a), and are separated by periods of diffuse suppression <10 μV (b) comprising greater than 50% of the recording (c). Occasionally, however, the bursts do not contain frank epileptiform (sharp) activity. There is a lack of cycling or reactivity in the burst-suppression EEG (d).


Reference: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.




8.  Match the frequency band with the descriptor.












  

  a.  Delta


  b.  Theta


  c.  Alpha


  d.  Beta


  1.  >13 to 30 Hz


  2.  4 to <8 Hz


  3.  <4 Hz


  4.  4. 8 to 13 Hz








Answer: a-3; b-2; c-4; d-1.



Delta activity is defined as EEG activity <4 Hz (a-3). Theta activity is defined as EEG activity greater than or equal to 4 Hz and less than 8 Hz (b-2). Alpha activity is defined as EEG activity greater than or equal to 8 Hz and less than or equal to 13 Hz (c-4). Beta activity is defined as EEG activity greater than 13 Hz and less than or equal to 30 Hz (d-1).


Reference: Ebersole J, Husain A, Nordli D Jr, eds. Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography. 4th ed. Wolters Kluwer;2014.




9.  Match the EEG images with the clinical states below.



  a.  Awake


  b.  Drowsy


  c.  Stage 1 sleep


  d.  Stage 2 sleep








Answer: Image 1 (a), Image 2 (b), Image 3 (d), Image 4 (c).



Image 1 represents the awake state (a). Eye blink artifact is seen on the left (blue circle), and the posterior dominant rhythm is seen in the middle of the trace (blue box). Image 2 represents the start of drowsiness (b) as roving eye movement artifact is seen (blue arrows). Image 3 represents stage 2 sleep (d) as sleep spindles are seen (blue arrow). Image 4 represents stage 1 sleep (c) as vertex waves are seen (blue circles).


Reference: Libenson M. Practical Approach to Electroencephalography. 1st ed. Saunders;2010.








10.  Which of the following best describes the EEG features shown below?



      a.   Lateralized rhythmic delta activity


      b.   Generalized rhythmic delta activity with a bifrontal predominance


      c.   Generalized rhythmic delta activity with a bioccipital predominance


      d.   Alpha coma




Answer: b.



This EEG shows generalized rhythmic delta activity with bifrontal predominance. Rhythmic delta activity (RDA) may be intermittent initially but may become more continuous as encephalopathy worsens. RDA is defined as lacking an interval between consecutive waveforms with <50% variation in periodicity from one cycle to the next. RDA can be generalized (GRDA) or lateralized (LRDA) (a) and when generalized, may demonstrate predominance either frontally, occipitally (c), or in the midline. Alpha coma consists of diffuse alpha frequency activity, often with frontal predominance and an absence of reactivity (d).


References: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.


Libenson M. Practical Approach to Electroencephalography. 1st ed. Saunders;2010.


Schomer D, Lopes da Silva FH, eds. Niedermeyer’s Electroencephalography: Basic Principles, Clinical Applications, and Related Fields. 6th ed. Wolters Kluwer/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins Health;2011.


Chapter 2: Encephalopathy, Coma Patterns, and Other Abnormalities of the EEG Background in Critically Ill Children





1.  A 10-year-old male presents after rupture of an arteriovenous malformation complicated by intraparenchymal and intraventricular hemorrhage. Continuous EEG monitoring is initiated. The EEG is notable for moderate to high amplitude 1 to 2 Hz slowing. With spontaneous movement of his lower extremities, after external stimulation, there is a change in his EEG as shown below. The change in his EEG is representative of which of the following?



      a.   Discontinuity


      b.   Reactivity


      c.   Stimulus-induced rhythmic, periodic, or ictal discharges


      d.   Nonconvulsive status epilepticus




Answer: b.



Reactivity manifests as a reproducible change in the frequency, amplitude, periodicity, rhythmicity, or other background EEG feature in response to stimulation (b). In low voltage tracings, reactivity typically manifests as an increase in amplitude and rhythmicity, while in high voltage tracings, reactivity may manifest as a relative attenuation of the background. Alternatively, in a patient with mild encephalopathy, reactivity may manifest as a decrease in slowing. Although reactivity is generally considered a positive prognostic sign, there is an exception to this in the form of stimulus-induced rhythmic, periodic, or ictal discharges (SIRPIDS) (c). SIRPIDs are periodic, rhythmic, or ictal-appearing discharges that are consistently induced by alerting stimuli. They include periodic discharges, rhythmic delta, or unequivocally evolving electrographic seizures, and they can be focal or generalized. SIRPIDs tend to be seen in patients with risk factors for a poor outcome but are not thought to be an independent predictor of a poor outcome. Discontinuity describes waveforms that, in the absence of stimulation, are interrupted by periods of voltage attenuation or suppression; discontinuity is considered a marker of severe encephalopathy (a). Nonconvulsive status epilepticus is defined as uninterrupted electrographic seizure activity lasting at least 30 minutes or repeated electrographic seizures totaling more than 30 minutes in any 1 hour period meeting the following criteria: (1) epileptiform discharges >2.5 Hz; or (2) epileptiform discharges ≤2.5 Hz or rhythmic delta/theta activity >0.5 Hz AND one of: (a) EEG and clinical improvement after intravenous antiseizure medication; (b) subtle clinical ictal phenomena during the EEG patterns mentioned above; or (c) typical spatiotemporal evolution (increase in voltage and change in frequency, or change in frequency >1 Hz, or change in location, or decrementing termination in voltage or frequency) (d).


References: Alvarez V, Oddo M, Rossetti AO. Stimulus-induced rhythmic, periodic or ictal discharges (SIRPIDs) in comatose survivors of cardiac arrest: Characteristics and prognostic value. Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;124:204–208.


Braksick SA, Burkholder DB, Tsetsou S, et al. Associated factors and prognostic implications of stimulus-induced rhythmic, periodic, or ictal discharges. JAMA Neurol. 2016;73:585–590.


Hirsch LJ, Brenner RP. Atlas of EEG in Critical Care. 1st ed. Wiley-Blackwell;2010.


Hirsch LJ, Claasen J, Mayer SA, Emerson RG. Stimulus-induced rhythmic, periodic, or ictal discharges (SIRPIDS): A common EEG phenomenon in the critically-ill. Epilepsia. 2004;45:109–123.


Leitinger M, Beniczky S, Rohracher A, et al. Salzburg consensus criteria for non-convulsive status epilepticus—approach to clinical application. Epilepsy Behav. 2015;49:158–163.


Libenson MH. Practical Approach to Electroencephalography. 1st ed. Saunders;2010.


RamachandranNair R, Sharma R, Weiss SK, et al. Reactive EEG patterns in pediatric coma. Pediatr Neurol. 2005;33:345–349.


Waterhouse E. Generalized encephalopathy. In: Ebersole JS, Husain AM, Nordli DR, eds. Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography. 4th ed. Wolters Kluwer;2014.




2.  A 2-year-old female is found submerged in the bathtub for approximately 4 minutes. She is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit intubated. Continuous EEG monitoring is initiated. The initial EEG shows mild background slowing. The dominant frequency over the left hemisphere is consistently 0.5 Hz slower than the dominant frequency over the right hemisphere. Is this considered a significant inter-hemispheric difference?


      a.   Yes


      b.   No




Answer: a.



According to ACNS critical care EEG terminology, a mild asymmetry is defined as a consistent asymmetry in frequency of 0.5 to 1 Hz, present for the majority (>50%) of the epoch/record. A major asymmetry is defined as >1 Hz frequency asymmetry, present for the majority (>50%) of the epoch/record.


Reference: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.




3a.  A 7-year-old male is admitted to the PICU after a left-sided pial synangiosis for moyamoya disease. Continuous EEG monitoring is initiated. His baseline EEG is notable for a symmetric 8 Hz posterior dominant rhythm with a mild excess of delta and theta activity for age. His EEG 6 hours after surgery is presented below. Which of the following best describes the image?



      a.   No change from baseline EEG


      b.   Right temporal > parasagittal slowing


      c.   Left hemispheric attenuation


      d.   Burst suppression




Answer: b.



This EEG shows slowing over the right temporal region as well as a decrease in fast activity over the right frontocentral region. The patient’s baseline EEG after surgery showed a symmetric 8 Hz posterior dominant rhythm (PDR) with a mild excess of delta and theta activity for age (a). The EEG shown here is asymmetric and an 8 Hz PDR is no longer seen on the right. Attenuation is defined as periods during which the amplitude is ≥10 μV but <50% of the background voltage (c); this is not seen here. The burst-attenuation/burst-suppression pattern is comprised of periodic bursts of polymorphic activity, often containing sharp features, separated by periods of voltage attenuation or suppression (d); this is not seen here.




3b.  The EEG above is notable for new-onset asymmetry with 4 Hz delta slowing over the right temporal region. Which of the following likely represents the rate of cerebral blood flow to the right temporal region?


      a.   Between 25 and 35 mL/100g/min


      b.   Between 12 and 18 mL/100g/min


      c.   Less than 12 mL/100g/min


      d.   Cannot be predicted based on his EEG pattern




Answer: b.



Changes in EEG activity are first seen when cerebral blood flow drops to approximately 25 to 35 mL/100 g/min (a). Initially, there is a loss of fast activity, primarily in the 8 to 14 Hz range. As cerebral blood flow continues to decrease to approximately 18 mL/100 g/min, an increase in slower frequency activity is seen, primarily in the 4 to 7 Hz range. Below a cerebral blood flow of approximately 18 mL/100 g/min, there is a further increase in slowing on the EEG, primarily in the 1 to 4 Hz range (b). With further decreases in cerebral blood flow below 10 to 12 mL/100 g/min (c), focal or diffuse attenuation of all EEG frequencies is seen.


References: Foreman B, Claassen J. Quantitative EEG for the detection of brain ischemia. Crit Care. 2016;16:216.


Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.




4.  A 4-year-old is admitted to the ICU with fever, altered mental status, and new-onset seizure activity. His baseline EEG is notable for 2 to 3 Hz delta slowing. Approximately 4 hours after EEG monitoring is begun, there is a sudden change in his EEG to the pattern shown below. What is the most likely explanation for the sudden change?



      a.   Nonconvulsive status epilepticus


      b.   New-onset ischemia


      c.   Resolution of encephalopathy


      d.   Administration of a benzodiazepine




Answer: d.



This EEG shows diffuse beta activity. Benzodiazepines are potent activators of beta activity and are commonly used in the intensive care unit for sedation. This patient received a benzodiazepine prior to lumbar puncture. Nonconvulsive status epilepticus is defined as uninterrupted electrographic seizure activity lasting at least 30 minutes or repeated electrographic seizures totaling more than 30 minutes in any 1-hour period meeting the following criteria: (1) epileptiform discharges >2.5 Hz; or (2) epileptiform discharges ≤2.5 Hz or rhythmic delta/theta activity >0.5 Hz AND one of: (a) EEG and clinical improvement after intravenous antiseizure medication; (b) subtle clinical ictal phenomena during the EEG patterns mentioned above; or (c) typical spatiotemporal evolution (increase in voltage and change in frequency, or change in frequency >1 Hz, or change in location, or decrementing termination in voltage or frequency). None of these are seen in this EEG (a). Changes in EEG activity can also be seen in the setting of ischemia. Initially, there is a loss of fast activity, primarily in the 8 to 14 Hz range, when cerebral blood flow drops to approximately 25 to 35 mL/100 g/min. As cerebral blood flow continues to decrease to approximately 18 mL/100 g/min, an increase in slower frequency activity is seen, primarily in the 4 to 7 Hz range. Below a cerebral blood flow of approximately 18 mL/100 g/min, there is a further increase in slowing on the EEG, primarily in the 1 to 4 Hz range. With further decreases in cerebral blood flow below 10 to 12 mL/100 g/min, focal or diffuse attenuation of all EEG frequencies is seen. None of these changes are seen here (b). Resolution of encephalopathy is associated normalization of the EEG. In a 4-year-old, this would manifest as an 8 Hz posterior dominant rhythm, which is not seen here (c).


References: Bauer G, Bauer R. EEG, drug effects, and central nervous system poisoning. In: Schomer DL, Lopes da Silva FH, eds. Neidermyer’s Electroencephalography: Basic Principles, Clinical Applications, and Related Fields. 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011:901–922.


Foreman B, Claassen J. Quantitative EEG for the detection of brain ischemia. Crit Care. 2016;16:216.




5.  Which of the following antidepressants is associated with the highest risk of seizure?


      a.   Fluoxetine


      b.   Mirtazapine


      c.   Buproprion


      d.   Trazodone




Answer: c.



Bupropion (c) and maprotiline are associated with a seizure risk as high as 1.5%. The next highest risk of seizures is seen with tricyclic antidepressants. The newer antidepressants, which include mirtazapine (b), nefazodone, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (a), and trazodone (d), are associated with a lower risk of seizure than the tricyclic antidepressants.


Reference: Bauer G, Bauer R. EEG, drug effects, and central nervous system poisoning. In: Schomer DL, Lopes da Silva FH, eds. Neidermyer’s Electroencephalography: Basic Principles, Clinical Applications, and Related Fields. 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011:901–922.




6.  A 16-year-old male presents with a severe traumatic brain injury. He requires a high-dose pentobarbital infusion for refractory increased intracranial pressure. Once his ICP is controlled, his pentobarbital infusion is weaned and discontinued. Twenty-four hours after stopping pentobarbital, his examination is notable for no response to noxious stimulation and absent pupillary, corneal, vestibulo-ocular, and gag reflexes. His ICP since stopping pentobarbital has ranged from 11 to 16. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his care?


      a.   Proceed with brain death examination


      b.   Proceed with a cerebral blood flow study


      c.   Continue supportive care


      d.   Resume pentobarbital infusion due to concern for recurrence of increased ICP




Answer: c.



Pentobarbital has a long half-life (up to 50 hours) and a pentobarbital-induced coma can mimic brain death. Given that this patient is unlikely to have cleared the pentobarbital from his system within 24 hours, it is most appropriate to continue supportive care (c). There is no evidence to suggest that his poor responsiveness is due to recurrence of his increased ICP (d). Neither a brain death examination nor an ancillary test should be performed given the likelihood of continued high levels of pentobarbital in his system (a, b).


References: Ehrnebo M. Pharmacokinetics and distribution properties of pentobarbital in humans following oral and intravenous administration. J Pharm Sci. 1974;63:1114–1118.


Nakagawa TA, Ashwal S, Mathur M, et al. Guidelines for the determination of brain death in infants and children: An update of the 1987 task force recommendations. Pediatrics. 2011;128:e720–e740.


Schaible DH, Cupit GC, Swedlow DB, et al. High-dose pentobarbital pharmacokinetics in hypothermic brain-injured children. J Pediatr. 1982;100:655–660.




7.  A 17-year-old female presents after an intentional overdose of an unknown substance(s). She is comatose, and continuous EEG monitoring is initiated. Her EEG is shown below. Which of the following substances did she most likely ingest?



      a.   Lorazepam


      b.   Risperidone


      c.   Oxycodone


      d.   Baclofen




Answer: d.



Baclofen overdose can cause a burst-attenuation/suppression pattern on EEG. This is not seen with overdose of lorazepam (a), risperidone (b), or oxycodone (c).


Reference: Weissenborn K, Wilkens H, Hausmann E, et al. Burst suppression EEG with baclofen overdose. Clin Neurol Neurosurg. 1991;93:77–780.




8a.  A 12-year-old male is resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. He requires 30 minutes of CPR before return of spontaneous circulation. Continuous EEG monitoring is initiated to detect subclinical seizures. There was no reactivity to formal stimulation. Which of the following best describes the EEG pattern?



      a.   Spindle coma


      b.   Normal posterior dominant rhythm


      c.   Theta coma


      d.   Reverse anterior to posterior gradient




Answer: c.



Rhythmic coma patterns, including alpha, theta, theta-alpha, and spindle coma, have been described in children, although less extensively than in adults. The electroencephalographic patterns are similar to those in adults; however, outcomes appear to be better than those in adults. The frequency of the rhythmic pattern does not appear to determine outcome in pediatric patients; it has therefore been proposed that rhythmic coma patterns in children represent a unified entity with a similar mechanism to alpha coma in adults but with a more variable expression in the developing brain. Alpha coma as described in adults is marked by continuous, invariant, monomorphic 8 to 12 Hz activity. The alpha activity is typically low to moderate in amplitude and generalized, often with anterior predominance. It is not reactive to passive eye opening although may be reactive to other forms of stimulation. Spindle coma resembles sleep but the patient cannot be roused (a). The EEG is marked by a generalized slow wave pattern with persistent 9 to 14 Hz sleep spindles, often accompanied by vertex sharp waves and K-complexes. The EEG may be indistinguishable from non-REM sleep, although spindle activity is often exaggerated; in a series of 15 patients in spindle coma, spindle activity was seen in more than 75% of each 20-second epoch of a routine daytime EEG recording. Each spindle has a discrete duration, and spindles are typically maximally expressed over the fronto-central regions. As in alpha coma, the EEG may or may not be reactive. A normal posterior dominant rhythm and a reversed anterior-posterior gradient would be expected to be reactive to eye opening (b, d).




8b.  Which of the following describes the prognosis associated with the above EEG pattern?


      a.   The patient will make a full recovery


      b.   Prognosis is guarded as this pattern has been associated with poor outcome


      c.   The patient is at high risk for reperfusion injury


      d.   The patient has a 75 to 80% chance of developing seizures




Answer: b.



As in adults, the etiology of coma is the primary determinant of outcome in children with rhythmic coma patterns, and rhythmic coma patterns have been reported in pediatric patients with coma from a variety of causes, including cardiac arrest, encephalitis, traumatic brain injury, near drowning, brain tumors, stroke, metabolic derangements, sepsis, and drug toxicity. In adults, alpha coma generally portends a poor prognosis after anoxic injury (a). However, alpha coma can also be seen in other settings, for example drug toxicity, in which case prognosis is generally good. Alpha coma typically evolves within 3 to 17 days after injury into a pattern predictive of outcome; alpha coma evolving to a pattern consistent with a mild or moderate degree of encephalopathy portends a good outcome, while alpha coma evolving to a burst-suppression pattern portends a poor outcome. The presence of reactivity in the setting of alpha coma is also predictive of outcome, although imperfectly so. In a series of 36 comatose patients in whom alpha frequency patterns were the predominant EEG pattern, 8 out of 15 patients with EEG reactivity awoke, whereas only 3 out of 19 patients without EEG reactivity awoke. Alpha coma has not been associated with reperfusion injury or seizure risk (c, d).


References: Braggatti JA, Mattos AM, Bastes H, et al. Alpha coma pattern in a child. Clin EEG Neurosci. 2008;39:206–209.


Chauhan B, Patanvadiya A, Dash GK. Carmazepine toxicity-induced spindle coma: A novel case report. Clin Neuropharmacol. 2017;40:100–102.


Collins AT, Chatrian GE. EEG rhythm of alpha frequency in a 22-month-old child after strangulation. Neurology. 1980;30:1316–1319.


Fernandez-Torre J, Lopez-Delgado A, Hernandez-Hernandez MA, et al. Postanoxic alpha, theta or alpha-theta coma: Clinical setting and neurological outcome. Resuscitation. 2018;124:118–125.


Frisher S, Herishanu Y. Mu and alpha rhythm in comatose children. Childs Nerv Syst. 1985;1:208–210.


Homan RW, Jones MG. Alpha-pattern coma in a 2-month-old child. Ann Neurol. 1981;9:611–613.


Horton EJ, Goldie WD, Baram TZ. Rhythmic coma in children. J Child Neurol. 1990;5:242–247.


Kaplan PW, Genoud D, Ho TW, et al. Etiology, neurologic correlations, and prognosis in alpha coma. Clin Neurophysiol. 1999;110:205–213.


Lersch DR, Kaplan AM. Alpha-pattern coma in childhood and adolescence. Arch Neurol. 1984;41:68–70.


Molofsky WJ. Alpha coma in a child. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry. 1982;45:95.


Ostojic S, Vukovic R, Milenkovic T, et al. Alpha coma in an adolescent with diabetic ketoacidosis. Turk J Pediatr. 2017;59:318–321.


Pulst SM, Lombroso CT. External ophthalmoplegia, alpha and spindle coma in imipramine overdose: Case report and review of the literature. Ann Neurol. 1983;14:587–590.


RamachandranNair R, Sharma R, Weiss SK, et al. Reactive EEG patterns in pediatric coma. Pediatr Neurol. 2005;33:345–349.


RamachandranNair R, Sharma R, Weiss SK, et al. A reappraisal of rhythmic coma patterns in children. Can J Neurol Sci. 2005;32:518–523.


Sarma GR, Kumar A, Roy AK, et al. Post-cardiorespiratory arrest beta-alpha coma: An unusual electroencephalographic phenomenon. Neurol India. 2003;51: 266–268.


Shoar Z, Dunne C, Yorns W, et al. Diabetic ketoacidosis with cerebral hemorrhage and alpha coma in an adolescent female. J Pediatr Endocrinol Metab. 2013;26:561–564.


Sorensen K, Thomassen A, Wernberg M. Prognostic significant of alpha frequency EEG rhythm in coma after cardiac arrest. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry. 1978;41:840–842.


Westmoreland BF, Klass DW, Sharborough FW, et al. Alpha-coma: Electroencephalographic, clinical, pathologic, and etiologic correlations. Arch Neurol 1975;32:713–718.


Yamada T, Stevland N, Kimura J. Alpha-pattern coma in a 2-year-old-child. Arch Neurol. 1979;36:225–227.


Young GB, McLachlan RS, Kreeft JH, et al. An electroencephalographic classification system for coma. Can J Neurosci Sci. 1997;24:320–325.




9.  A 14-year-old male with no known past medical history is found down on the basketball court. A nearby teacher starts chest compressions, and he is intubated in the field by EMS. Upon arrival to the PICU, he has a GCS score of 5. CT is negative for intracranial hemorrhage, and continuous EEG is started. All of the following may represent EEG reactivity to the application of a stimulus EXCEPT:


      a.   2 to 3 seconds of relative voltage attenuation on a background of high-amplitude 1 to 2 Hz delta slowing


      b.   Onset of moderate-amplitude 4 to 5 Hz rhythmic theta on a background of low amplitude 1 to 2 Hz delta slowing


      c.   Onset of 5 Hz monomorphic rhythmic theta on a background of 5 Hz polymorphic theta slowing


      d.   Onset of myogenic artifact




Answer: d.



Reactivity manifests as a reproducible change in the frequency (b), amplitude (a,b), periodicity, rhythmicity (b,c), or other background EEG feature in response to stimulation. In low-voltage tracings, reactivity typically manifests as an increase in amplitude and rhythmicity (b), while in high-voltage tracings, reactivity may manifest as a relative attenuation of the background (a). Alternatively, in a patient with mild encephalopathy, reactivity may manifest as a decrease in slowing. Appearance of muscle activity or eye-blink artifacts does not qualify as reactivity (d).


Reference: RamachandranNair R, Sharma R, Weiss SK, et al. Reactive EEG patterns in pediatric coma. Pediatr Neurol. 2005;33:345–349.




10.  A 15-year-old male presents with hyperthermia to 106° Fahrenheit and altered mental status. Describe the pattern seen on his EEG.



      a.   Generalized periodic discharges with a triphasic morphology


      b.   Generalized rhythmic delta activity with a bifrontal predominance


      c.   Effect of dexmedetomidine administration


      d.   Nonconvulsive status epilepticus




Answer: b.



Generalized rhythmic delta activity (GRDA) with a bifrontal predominance can be seen in both children and adults with encephalopathy from various causes. Intermittent generalized rhythmic delta activity is typically seen in children who are awake but drowsy or mildly lethargic. It is characterized by rhythmic delta activity that recurs at irregular intervals on a background comprised of mild-to-moderate generalized theta slowing. It is typically bilaterally synchronous and attenuates with eye opening or alerting. It is most commonly seen over the frontal region and prior to the publication of the ACNS standardized critical care EEG terminology, was referred to as FIRDA (frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity). Generalized periodic discharges (GPDs) with triphasic morphology, formerly known as triphasic waves, can be seen in critically ill adult patients with encephalopathy (a). These have historically been associated with a metabolic or toxic cause of encephalopathy; however, a recent study in adults showed that GPDs without triphasic morphology had a higher association with metabolic and toxic disturbances than those with triphasic morphology and that GPDs with triphasic morphology were seen as frequently as GPDs without triphasic morphology in critically ill patients with seizures. Sedation with dexmedetomidine, a highly selective agonist of the α2-adrenergic receptor, resembles naturally occurring N2 sleep (c), and the EEG features of naturally occurring and dexemedetomidine-induced sleep in children undergoing procedural sedation are nearly indistinguishable based on visual analysis. Quantitative analysis reveals a statistically significant increase in beta > alpha > theta power with exposure to dexmedetomidine; however, these increases are not significant enough to change the visual appearance of the EEG. Nonconvulsive status epilepticus is defined as uninterrupted electrographic seizure activity lasting at least 30 minutes or repeated electrographic seizures totaling more than 30 minutes in any 1-hour period meeting the following criteria: (1) epileptiform discharges >2.5 Hz; or (2) epileptiform discharges ≤2.5 Hz or rhythmic delta/theta activity >0.5 Hz AND one of: (a) EEG and clinical improvement after intravenous antiseizure medication; (b) subtle clinical ictal phenomena during the EEG patterns mentioned above; or (c) typical spatiotemporal evolution (increase in voltage and change in frequency, or change in frequency >1 Hz, or change in location, or decrementing termination in voltage or frequency) (d).


References: Foreman B, Mahulikar A, Tadi P, et al. Generalized periodic discharges and “triphasic waves”: A blinded evaluation of inter-rater agreement and clinical significance. Clin Neurophysiol. 2016;127:1073–1080.


Leitinger M, Beniczky S, Rohracher A, et al. Salzburg consensus criteria for non-convulsive status epilepticus—approach to clinical application. Epilepsy Behav. 2015;49:158–163.


Libenson MH. Practical Approach to Electroencephalography. 1st ed. Saunders;2010.


Mason KP, O’Mahony E, Zurakowski D, et al. Effect of dexemedetomidine sedation on the EEG in children. Paediatr Anaesth. 2009;19:1175–1183.


Waterhouse E. Generalized encephalopathy. In: Ebersole JS, Husain AM, Nordli DR, eds. Current Practice of Clinical Electroencephalography. 4th ed. Wolters Kluwer;2014.


Chapter 3: Periodic and Rhythmic Patterns in the Pediatric ICU


For questions 1 and 2, please use the following options.



  A.  Generalized


  B.  Periodic


  C.  Lateralized


  D.  Spike wave


  E.  Rhythmic delta activity


  F.  Pseudo-periodic


  G.  Evolving


  H.  Bilateral independent


  I.  Multifocal


  J.  Quasi-periodic






1.  Which of the following describe main term 1?


      a.   B, F, H, I


      b.   A, C, H, I


      c.   A, B, H, I


      d.   B, D, E




Answer: 1-b.



Main term 1 focuses on location and defines this as: Generalized (G); Lateralized (L); Bilateral independent (BI); or Multifocal (Mf).




2.  Which of the following describe main term 2?


      a.   A, C, H, I


      b.   B, D, E


      c.   B, D, E, F


      d.   B, D, E, F, J




Answer: 2-b.



Main term 2 focuses on pattern morphology and defines this as: Periodic; Rhythmic delta activity; and Spike-and-wave or Sharp-and-wave. The remaining options are modifiers.


Reference: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol 2013;30:1–27.




3.  A 14-year-old male with primary cholangitis and liver failure is cannulated to ECMO after a cardiac arrest. EEG is displayed below. Which of the following is associated with this pattern in this clinical setting?



      a.   Normal recovery


      b.   Brain death


      c.   Poor outcome


      d.   Epilepsy




Answer: c.



The EEG displayed shows generalized (main term 1) periodic (main term 2) discharges. When associated with cardiac arrest, the prognosis is poor (a, c). In refractory status, the presence of GPDs after seizure resolution has been associated with seizure recurrence. GPDs have not been associated with brain death (b). The association of GPDS and epilepsy is unclear and warrants further study (d). Note that the clinical context, including the underlying etiology, are essential when considering the prognostic significance of GPDs.


Reference: Akman CI, Khaled KJA, Segal E, et al. Generalized periodic epileptiform discharges in critically ill children: Clinical features, and outcome. Epilepsy Res 2013;106:378–385.


Questions 4 and 5.







4.  A 7-year-old male presents with fever and altered mental status. Which of the following best describes the pattern above?


      a.   LPDs


      b.   LPDs + F


      c.   Asymmetric LPDs + R


      d.   LRDA + S


      e.   LRDA + FS




5.  Which of the following best characterizes his seizure risk based on this EEG?


      a.   0%


      b.   25 to 50%


      c.   50 to 75%


      d.   100%




Answer: 4-a, 5-c.



The EEG shows lateralized (main term 1) periodic (main term 2) discharges. They are located maximally at F3 (confirmed on an average referential montage) and are confined to the left hemisphere. LPDs have been associated with herpes simplex encephalitis when in the temporal lobe. However, structural etiologies and other infectious etiologies have also been associated with LPDs. In addition to these associations, LPDs (formerly PLEDS) are associated with seizures. A recent study in adults showed that 58% of patients with LPDs have seizures.


References: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.


PeBenito R, Cracco JB. Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges in infants and children. Ann Neurol. 1979;6:47–50.


Raroque HG Jr, Wagner W, Gonzales PC, et al. Reassessment of the clinical significance of periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges in pediatric patients. Epilepsia. 1993;34:275–278.


Ruiz AR, Vlachy J, Lee, JW, et al. Association of periodic and rhythmic electroencephalographic patterns with seizures in critically ill patients. JAMA Neurol. 2017;74:181–188.


Questions 6 and 7.






6.  A 12-year-old boy presents with a first-time seizure after 1 week of fever. The patient is treated with two doses of lorazepam and 20 mgPE/kg fosphenytoin and intubated. CT scan is negative for acute intracranial pathology, and CSF analysis shows no evidence of infectious or inflammatory process. EEG is performed. Which of the following best describes the pattern above?


      a.   Generalized rhythmic delta activity with a bifrontal predominance


      b.   Asymmetric lateralized rhythmic delta activity


      c.   Eye-blink artifact


      d.   Electrographic seizure




7.  Which of the following is the most common association with this pattern?


      a.   Epilepsy


      b.   Refractory seizures


      c.   Encephalopathy


      d.   Structural abnormality




Answer: 6-a, 7-c.



The EEG shows generalized (main term 1), rhythmic delta activity (main term 2), which is maximal in the bifrontal regions. This pattern is nonspecific, and it is most commonly associated with encephalopathy. GRDA with a bifrontal predominance has been associated with increased ICP, however this is neither a sensitive or specific finding (d). There are no associations with refractory seizures or epilepsy (a, b).


Reference: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.


Questions 8 and 9.







8.  A 4-year-old male with congenital heart disease is cannulated to ECMO after a cardiac arrest. EEG is performed to assess for subclinical seizures. A 1-hour segment of EEG is reviewed. Which of the following main terms best describes the pattern above?


      a.   Generalized periodic discharges with a bifrontal predominance


      b.   Lateralized periodic discharges


      c.   Bilateral independent periodic discharges


      d.   Multifocal periodic discharges




9.  What is the most likely association based on the EEG findings and clinical history?


      a.   Herpes encephalitis


      b.   Pneumococcal meningoencephalitis


      c.   Ischemic infarct


      d.   Malignancy




Answer: 8-b, 9-c.



The EEG shows lateralized (main term 1), periodic (main term 2) discharges. They are maximal over the midline at Cz with a field to Pz. This is confirmed on the average referential montage. The other choices do not describe the pattern. In light of a cardiac arrest, it is most likely that these are associated with a structural lesion, particularly an ischemic infarct given the mechanism being cardiac arrest and cannulation to ECMO. The other options have been associated with LPDs but would be much less likely given the clinical history.


References: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.


PeBenito R, Cracco JB. Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges in infants and children. Ann Neurol 1979;6:47–50.




10.  All of the following are correct pairings of EEG patterns with clinical scenarios EXCEPT:


      a.   Lateralized rhythmic delta activity over the temporal region—increased seizure risk


      b.   Generalized rhythmic delta activity over the bioccipital regions—absence epilepsy


      c.   Generalized rhythmic delta activity with a bifrontal predominance—encephalopathy


      d.   Generalized rhythmic delta activity over the biparietal regions—increased intracranial pressure




Answer: d.



Generalized rhythmic delta activity with a bifrontal predominance has been reported in association with increased intracranial pressure, not generalized rhythmic delta activity over the biparietal regions (d). Generalized rhythmic delta activity with a bifrontal predominance is typically seen in children who are awake but drowsy or mildly lethargic. It is characterized by rhythmic delta activity that recurs at irregular intervals on a background comprised of mild-to-moderate generalized theta slowing. It is typically bilaterally synchronous and attenuates with eye opening or alerting. It is most commonly seen over the frontal region and prior to the publication of the ACNS standardized critical care EEG terminology was referred to as FIRDA (frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity) (c). In children, generalized rhythmic delta activity can, alternatively, have a bioccipital predominance, previously referred to as occipital intermittent rhythmic delta activity (OIRDA). Frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity has also been reported in association with increased intracranial pressure and deep midline lesions, and occipital intermittent rhythmic delta activity can be seen in children with absence epilepsy (b). An additional form of intermittent rhythmic delta activity over the temporal region is seen in adults in association with temporal lobe epilepsy and is not commonly considered a marker of encephalopathy (a).


References: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.


Ruiz AR, Vlachy J, Lee JW, et al. Association of periodic and rhythmic electroencephalographic patterns with seizures in critically ill patients. JAMA Neurol. 2017;74:181–188.


Chapter 4: Seizures in Critically Ill Children





1.  All of the following clinical and electroencephalographic features have been shown to be associated with an increased risk for seizures in pediatric patients in the intensive care unit EXCEPT?


      a.   Younger age


      b.   Absence of reactivity


      c.   Presence of lateralized periodic discharges


      d.   No history of epilepsy




Answer: d.



In a multicenter retrospective cohort study of pediatric ICU patients, 30% of patients undergoing video EEG monitoring were found to have electrographic seizures (ES). ES were more likely to occur in younger children (median age of 23 months in those with seizure compared to 42 months in those without seizure), suggesting younger age as a risk factor for seizure occurrence (a). In a study of 719 critically ill children with acute encephalopathy undergoing cEEG in the pediatric intensive care unit, variables associated with increased ES risk included age (a), etiology of encephalopathy, clinical seizures prior to cEEG initiation, EEG background category, and the presence of epileptiform discharges. In a study of 98 children presenting with convulsive status epilepticus, risk factors for electrographic seizures after convulsive status epilepticus included a prior diagnosis of epilepsy (d) and the presence of interictal epileptiform discharges. Other background features found to correlate with development of ES include lateralized periodic discharges (c) and absence of background reactivity (b).


References: Abend NS, Arndt DH, Carpenter JL, et al. Electrographic seizures in pediatric ICU patients: Cohort study of risk factors and mortality. Neurology. 2013;81:383–391.


Fung FW, Jacobwitz M, Parikh DS, et al. Development of a model to predict electroencephalographic seizures in critically ill children. Epilepsia. 2020;61:498–508.


Jette N, Claassen J, Emerson RG, et al. Frequency and predictors of nonconvulsive seizures during continuous electroencephalographic monitoring in critically ill children. Arch Neurol. 2006;63:1750–1755.


Sánchez Fernández I, Abend NS, Arndt DH, et al. Electrographic seizures after convulsive status epilepticus in children and young adults: A retrospective multicenter study. J Pediatr. 2014;164:339–346.




2a.  A 4-year-old male with no past medical history presented with a prolonged seizure in the setting of fever. On arrival to the emergency department, the patient had continued clonic movements and upward eye deviation. After receiving two boluses of IV lorazepam and 20 mgPE/kg of fosphenytoin, the patient developed respiratory failure requiring intubation. According to the Neurocritical Care Society Guideline for the Evaluation and Management of Status Epilepticus, how soon after the onset of status epilepticus should EEG be started?


      a.   30 minutes


      b.   1 hour


      c.   3 hours


      d.   12 hours


      e.   24 hours


      f.   EEG is not indicated




Answer: b.



The Neurocritical Care Society suggests that cEEG be initiated within 1 hour of the onset of status epilepticus if continued seizure activity is present. This patient is at risk for ongoing nonconvulsive seizure activity and, therefore, warrants continuous EEG monitoring. The American Clinical Neurophysiology Society recommends continuous EEG monitoring to identify nonconvulsive seizures and nonconvulsive status epilepticus in critically ill children with persistently abnormal mental status following generalized convulsive status epilepticus or other clinically evident seizures if there is any impairment of consciousness for greater than 30 minutes after cessation of clinically evident seizure activity (a).


References: Brophy GM, Bell R, Claassen J. Guidelines for the evaluation and management of status epilepticus. Neurocrit Care. 2012;17:3–23.


Herman ST, Abend NS, Bleck TP, et al. Consensus statement on continuous EEG in critically ill adults and children, part I: Indications. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2015;32:87–95.




2b.  Continuous EEG is placed and displayed below. What is the minimum duration of monitoring after the last seizure recommended by the American Clinical Neurophysiology Society?



      a.   12 hours after seizure onset


      b.   12 hours after seizure cessation


      c.   24 hours after seizure onset


      d.   24 hours after seizure cessation


      e.   48 hours after seizure onset


      f.   48 hours after seizure cessation




Answer: d.



The American Clinical Neurophysiology Society and the Neurocritical Care Society recommend that EEG be continued for a minimum of 24 hours after the last seizure.


References: Brophy GM, Bell R, Claassen J. Guidelines for the evaluation and management of status epilepticus. Neurocrit Care. 2012;17:3–23.


Herman ST, Abend NS, Bleck TP, et al. Consensus statement on continuous EEG in critically ill adults and children, part I: Indications. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2015;32:87–95.




3.  Which of the following is not an indication for cEEG in the intensive care unit recommended by the American Clinical Neurophysiology Society?


      a.   Assessment of paroxysmal events


      b.   Identification of increased intracranial pressure


      c.   Prognostication


      d.   Identification of subclinical seizures


      e.   Detection of ischemia after subarachnoid hemorrhage




Answer: b.



Continuous EEG (cEEG) can be used in the assessment of paroxysmal events (a), prognostication (c), and identification of subclinical seizures or nonconvulsive status epilepticus (NCSE) (d). cEEG is also used, primarily in adults, for the detection of delayed cerebral ischemia after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (e). The gold standard for intracranial pressure measurement relies on invasive techniques. To date, there are no validated noninvasive techniques for intracranial pressure monitoring.


References: Herman ST, Abend NS, Bleck TP, et al. Consensus statement on continuous EEG in critically ill adults and children, part I: Indications. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2015;32:87–95.




4.  A 5-year-old female presents with a cardiac arrest after heart transplant. The patient is emergently cannulated to VA-ECMO. Continuous EEG is placed. What percent of children on ECMO have electrographic seizures?


      a.   10%


      b.   20%


      c.   30%


      d.   40%


      e.   50%




Answer: b.



Patients on ECMO are at risk for electrographic seizures. The initial study in 2013 focused on this population noted that 21% of children being treated with ECMO had seizures on continuous EEG monitoring, with half having nonconvulsive status epilepticus. Subsequent studies have shown that 18 to 23% of patients on ECMO have electrographic seizures; these studies have additionally shown an association between seizures and mortality in this population.


References: Lin JJ, Banwell BL, Berg RA, et al. Electrographic seizures in children and neonates undergoing extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2017;18:249–257.


Okochi S, Shakoor A, Barton S, et al. Prevalence of seizures in pediatric extracorporeal membrane oxygenation patients as measured by continuous electroencephalography. Pediatr Crit Care Med 2018;19:1162–1167.


Piantino JA, Wainwright MS, Grimason M, et al. Nonconvulsive seizures are common in children treated with extracorporeal cardiac life support. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2013;14:601–609.




5.  A 10-month-old male is admitted to the pediatric ICU with altered mental status and abnormal movements. CT scan showed bilateral subdural hematomas. GCS score on arrival was 8. Continuous EEG was started. Which of the following statements are true regarding this clinical scenario?


      a.   Approximately 5% of patients with abusive head trauma have electrographic seizures


      b.   Approximately 80% of seizures in critically ill children occur within the first 24 hours of EEG monitoring


      c.   Keppra prophylaxis has been shown to be of greater benefit than phenytoin prophylaxis in decreasing the likelihood of electrographic seizures after traumatic brain injury in children


      d.   Children with TBI have a <2% risk of developing epilepsy




Answer: b.



Timing of seizure onset from the start of cEEG is similar across pediatric subpopulations with a few notable exceptions. In patients with acute encephalopathy monitored on video EEG and found to have seizures, 97% had their first electrographic seizure within the first 24 hours of recording. Similarly, in a cohort of children with nonconvulsive status epilepticus, 100% were detected within the first 24 hours of continuous EEG monitoring. When including all indications for EEG monitoring in the neonatal and pediatric ICU, 80% of seizures occur within the first 24 hours and 87% within the first 48 hours of the initiation of cEEG monitoring. The first electrographic seizures have been reported to occur between 10 and 36 hours postoperatively in children with congenital heart disease with a mean time of onset of 21 hours +/− 6 hours. This suggests that strict adherence to the ACNS guideline for a minimum duration of 24 hours of cEEG to identify seizures may not be sufficient in this population. The initial study of electrographic seizures in patients on ECMO found that all seizures were captured within the first 24 hours of cEEG initiation, with 50% of those being captured within the first hour of recording. In contrast, Lin et al. found that the median time to first seizure was 15 hours (IQR 6-24), while Okochi et al. found that only 50% of seizures were captured in the first 24 hours, suggesting that this population may also benefit from 48 hours of cEEG to identify seizures. This patient’s presentation is concerning for abusive head trauma. The incidence of acute seizures in the aftermath of abusive head trauma ranges from 33 to 77.3% (a). According to the Brain Trauma Foundation Guidelines for the Management of Severe Traumatic Brain Injury, 3rd edition, “at the present time, there is insufficient evidence to recommend levetiracetam over phenytoin based on either efficacy in preventing early [post-traumatic seizures] or toxicity” (c). The incidence of posttraumatic epilepsy in children has been less well-studied than the incidence of acute seizures (d). A survey of caregivers of 191 children with mild traumatic brain injury a mean of 7.4 years after the TBI revealed a self-reported incidence of epilepsy (defined as two or more unprovoked seizures) of 3%. A similar study in children with moderate to severe TBI revealed an incidence of posttraumatic epilepsy of 9%. In a cohort of patients with traumatic brain injury referred to a child neurologist at a tertiary pediatric hospital, the incidence of posttraumatic epilepsy was 15%. The highest rates of posttraumatic epilepsy were seen in patients with severe TBI, with 83% of patients with severe TBI developing posttraumatic epilepsy. All patients with nonaccidental trauma in this cohort had severe TBI. In an additional cohort of 44 children with nonaccidental trauma, 22% developed posttraumatic epilepsy. Similar rates of posttraumatic epilepsy, 9% and 21.4%, were seen in children admitted to an inpatient rehabilitation hospital after severe TBI and in children with substantial head trauma, respectively. In the subset of children with abusive head trauma, posttraumatic epilepsy risk was as high as 43%.


References: Appleton RE, Demellweek C. Post-traumatic epilepsy in children requiring inpatient rehabilitation following head injury. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry. 2002;72:669–672.


Arndt DH, Goodkin HP, Giza CC. Early posttraumatic seizures in the pediatric population. J Child Neurol. 2016;31:46–56.


Arndt DH, Lerner JT, Matsumoto JH, et al. Subclinical early posttraumatic seizures detected by continuous EEG monitoring in a consecutive pediatric cohort. Epilepsia. 2013;54:1780–1788.


Barlow KM, Spowart JJ, Minns RA. Early posttraumatic seizures in non-accidental head injury: Relation to outcome. Dev Med Child Neurol. 2000;42:591–594.


Bennett KS, DeWitt PE, Harlaar N, et al. Seizures in children with severe traumatic brain injury. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2017;18:54–63.


Clancy RR, Sharif U, Ichord R, et al. Electrographic neonatal seizures after infant heart surgery. Epilepsia. 2005;46:84–90.


Dingman AL, Stence NV, O’Neill BR, et al. Seizure severity is correlated with severity of hypoxic-ischemic injury in abusive head trauma. Pediatr Neurol. 2018;82:29–35.


Goldstein JL, Leonhardt D, Kmytyuk N, et al. Abnormal neuroimaging is associated with early in-hospital seizures in pediatric abusive head trauma. Neurocrit Care. 2011;15:63–69.


Jette N, Claassen J, Emerson RG, et al. Frequency and predictors of nonconvulsive seizures during continuous electroencephalographic monitoring in critically ill children. Arch Neurol. 2006;63:1750–1755.


Keret A, Bennett-Back O, Rosenthal G, et al. Posttraumatic epilepsy: Long-term follow-up of children with mild traumatic brain injury. J Neurosurg Pediatr. 2017;20:64–70.


Keret A, Shweiki M, Bennett-Back O, et al. The clinical characteristics of posttraumatic epilepsy following moderate-to-severe traumatic brain injury in children. Seizure. 2018;58:29–34.


Kieslich M, Jacobi G. Incidence and risk factors of post-traumatic epilepsy in childhood. Lancet. 1995;345:187.


Kochanek PM, Tasker RC, Carney N, et al. Guidelines for the management of pediatric severe traumatic brain injury, third edition: Update of the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines, executive summary. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2019;20:280–289.


Lin JJ, Banwell BL, Berg RA, et al. Electrographic seizures in children and neonates undergoing extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2017;18:249–257.


McCoy B, Sharma R, Ochi A, et al. Predictors of nonconvulsive seizures among critically ill children. Epilepsia. 2011;52:1973–1978.


Oh A, Olson LD, Chern JJ, et al. Clinical characteristics and nonconvulsive seizures in young children with abusive head trauma. J Child Neurol. 2019;34:713–719.


Okochi S, Shakoor A, Barton S, et al. Prevalence of seizures in pediatric extracorporeal membrane oxygenation patients as measured by continuous electroencephalography. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2018;19:1162–1167.


O’Neill BR, Handler MH, Tong S, et al. Incidence of seizures on continuous EEG monitoring following traumatic brain injury in children. J Neurosurg Pediatr. 2015;16:167–176.


Park JT, Chugani HT. Post-traumatic epilepsy in children-experience from a tertiary referral center. Pediatr Neurol. 2015;52:174–181.


Piantino JA, Wainwright MS, Grimason M, et al. Nonconvulsive seizures are common in children treated with extracorporeal cardiac life support. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2013;14:601–609.


Schreiber JM, Zelleke T, Gaillard WD, et al. Continuous video EEG for patients with acute encephalopathy in a pediatric intensive care unit. Neurocrit Care. 2012;17:31–38.




6.  A 6-year-old female presents with status epilepticus after 1 week of fever and upper respiratory symptoms. After receiving IV lorazepam, fosphenytoin, and levetiracetam, the decision was made to start a continuous infusion of midazolam for ongoing seizures. The patient was intubated for airway protection. All of the following are true EXCEPT:


      a.   Early treatment of electrographic seizures improves outcome


      b.   Electrographic status epilepticus has been associated with increased mortality


      c.   A seizure burden >12 minutes per hour is associated with worsening of neurologic status at discharge


      d.   Electrographic seizures have been associated with increased in-hospital mortality




Answer: a.



There is no evidence to suggest that early treatment of electrographic seizures (ES) improves outcome. The remaining choices are true. One study examining ES and outcome found that in 200 patients with acute encephalopathy monitored by continuous EEG, ES alone were not associated with in-hospital mortality or worsening of Pediatric Cerebral Performance Category (PCPC) score (the PCPC is a measure of overall neurologic function). However, electrographic status epilepticus had a clear association with in-hospital mortality and PCPC worsening. In contrast, electrographic seizures in the ECMO population have been associated with in-hospital mortality. A prospective observational study assessing the relationship between electrographic seizure burden and short-term neurologic outcome found that patients with posthospitalization neurologic decline were found to have a mean seizure burden of 15.7% per hour compared to only 1.8% per hour for those without a decline in neurologic function. Seizure burden was calculated from the one-hour epoch of EEG with maximum seizure duration, and neurologic outcome was based on PCPC scores. The probability and severity of neurologic decline rose sharply above a maximum seizure burden of 20% (12 minutes/hour), suggesting that seizure burden, or maximum percentage per hour of seizure activity, was independently associated with poor short-term neurologic outcome.


References: Lin JJ, Banwell BL, Berg RA, et al. Electrographic seizures in children and neonates undergoing extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2017;18:249–257.


Okochi S, Shakoor A, Barton S, et al. Prevalence of seizures in pediatric extracorporeal membrane oxygenation patients as measured by continuous electroencephalography. Pediatr Crit Care Med. 2018;19:1162–1167.


Payne ET, Zhao XY, Frndova H, et al. Seizure burden is independently associated with short term outcome in critically ill children. Brain. 2014;37:1429–1438.


Topjian A, Gutierrez-Colina AM, Sanchez SM, et al. Electrographic status epilepticus is associated with mortality and worse short-term outcome in critically ill children. Crit Care Med. 2013;41:215–223.




7.  A 15-year-old male presents with altered mental status. A toxic/metabolic evaluation including electrolytes, urine toxicology screen, and thyroid function are without abnormality. EEG is performed and shown below. Which of the following is the best next step?



      a.   Administer a 20 mg/kg IV loading dose of valproic acid for subclinical status epilepticus


      b.   Trial a 0.1 mg/kg dose of lorazepam and assess for EEG and clinical improvement


      c.   Check an ammonia level


      d.   Perform a lumbar puncture




Answer: b.



The EEG above shows ~1 Hz epileptiform discharges maximal over the bilateral anterior quadrants. Nonconvulsive status epilepticus is defined as uninterrupted electrographic seizure activity lasting at least 30 minutes or repeated electrographic seizures totaling more than 30 minutes in any 1-hour period meeting the following criteria: (1) epileptiform discharges >2.5 Hz; or (2) epileptiform discharges ≤2.5 Hz or rhythmic delta/theta activity >0.5 Hz AND one of: (a) EEG and clinical improvement after intravenous antiseizure medication (ASM); (b) subtle clinical ictal phenomena during the EEG patterns mentioned above; or (c) typical spatiotemporal evolution (increase in voltage and change in frequency, or change in frequency >1 Hz, or change in location, or decrementing termination in voltage or frequency). A trial of lorazepam may help determine whether the above pattern represents nonconvulsive status epilepticus. Given that it is unclear whether the above pattern represents status epilepticus or not, a benzodiazepine trial is warranted prior to treatment with a nonbenzodiazepine ASM (a). An ammonia level should also be checked (c), and a lumbar puncture is likely warranted depending on the full clinical history (d).


Reference: Leitinger M, Beniczky S, Rohracher A, et al. Salzburg consensus criteria for non-convulsive status epilepticus—approach to clinical application. Epilepsy Behav. 2015;49:158–163.




8.  In a child outside of the neonatal period (>48 weeks postmenstrual age), generalized spike-wave discharges at 2/s would be considered an unequivocal electrographic seizure per the ACNS critical care terminology.


      a.   T


      b.   F




Answer: b.



In children outside of the neonatal period (>48 weeks postmenstrual age), unequivocal electrographic seizures are defined as generalized spike-wave discharges at 3/s or faster and clearly evolving discharges of any type that reach a frequency >4/s whether focal or generalized. Nonconvulsive status epilepticus is defined as uninterrupted electrographic seizure activity lasting at least 30 minutes or repeated electrographic seizures totaling more than 30 minutes in any 1-hour period meeting the following criteria: (1) epileptiform discharges >2.5 Hz; or (2) epileptiform discharges ≤2.5 Hz or rhythmic delta/theta activity >0.5 Hz AND one of: (a) EEG and clinical improvement after intravenous antiseizure medication; (b) subtle clinical ictal phenomena during the EEG patterns mentioned above; or (c) typical spatiotemporal evolution (increase in voltage and change in frequency, or change in frequency >1 Hz, or change in location, or decrementing termination in voltage or frequency).


References: Hirsch LJ, LaRoche SM, Gaspard N, et al. American Clinical Neurophysiology Society’s standardized critical care EEG terminology: 2012 version. J Clin Neurophysiol. 2013;30:1–27.


Leitinger M, Beniczky S, Rohracher A, et al. Salzburg consensus criteria for non-convulsive status epilepticus—approach to clinical application. Epilepsy Behav. 2015;49:158–163.




9.  A 4-day-old neonate with prenatal diagnosis of D-transposition of the great arteries is now status post arterial switch operation. Upon arrival to the CICU, continuous EEG is started. What percentage of neonates and children undergoing cardiac surgery have seizures?


      a.   <5%


      b.   5 to 20%


      c.   20 to 30%


      d.   >30%




Answer: b.



Neonates and infants who undergo repair of congenital heart disease are at risk for electrographic seizures (ES). The incidence of postoperative clinical seizure activity varied widely among early studies, ranging from 5% to 19%. An early prospective study using both clinical and EEG criteria for seizure diagnosis found that among patients who underwent surgery for D-transposition of the great arteries, 6% had clinical seizures and 20% had ES in the postoperative period. Seizures were more common in patients who underwent deep hypothermic circulatory arrest as compared to low flow bypass. A later prospective study using EEG criteria for seizure diagnosis identified seizures in the postoperative period in 11% of patients with single ventricle physiology and 18% of patients with hypoplastic left heart syndrome. This study also showed that deep hypothermic circulatory arrest for greater than 40 minutes was associated with both clinical and electrographic seizures. Similarly, a prospective study using cEEG criteria for the diagnosis of seizure in patients with all types of congenital heart disease during the first 48 hours after surgery identified seizures in 12% of patients. A study focused on neonates found that 8% of patients monitored using cEEG had ES after congenital heart disease surgery, with the majority being electrographic-only; there was also a high rate of electrographic status epilepticus in this study.


References: Clancy RR, McGuarn S, Wernovsky G, et al. Risk of seizures in survivors of newborn heart surgery using deep hypothermic circulatory arrest. Pediatrics. 2003;111:592–601.


Clancy RR, Sharif U, Ichord R, et al. Electrographic neonatal seizures after infant heart surgery. Epilepsia. 2005;46:84–90.


Du Plessis AJ, Jonas R, Wypij D, et al. Perioperative effects of alpha-stat versus pH-stat strategies for deep hypothermic cardiopulmonary bypass in infants. J Thorac Cardiovasc Surg. 1997;114:991–1000.


Gaynor JW, Nicolson SC, Jarvik GP, et al. Increasing duration of deep hypothermic circulatory arrest is associated with an increased incidence of postoperative electroencephalographic seizures. J Thorac Cardiovasc Surg. 2005;130:1278–1286.


Helmers SL, Wypij D, Constantinou JE, et al. Perioperative electroencephalographic seizures in infants undergoing repair of complex congenital cardiac defects. Electroencephalogr Clin Neurophysiol. 1997;102:27–36.


Naim MY, Gaynor JW, Chen J, et al. Subclinical seizure identified by postoperative electroencephalopgraphic monitoring are common after neonatal cardiac surgery. J Thorac Cardiovasc Surg. 2015;150:169–178.




10.  The mean duration of seizures in critically ll children in the intensive care unit is:


      a.   <10 seconds


      b.   1 to 5 minutes


      c.   15 to 30 minutes


      d.   >30 minutes




Answer: b.



A retrospective review of 141 pediatric patients who were admitted or transferred to the PICU of a tertiary children’s hospital with an unexplained decrease in level of consciousness, no overt clinical seizures, and EEG recordings performed within 24 hours of onset of altered consciousness showed a mean duration of seizures of 159 seconds with a range of 10 seconds to 11 minutes. Electrographic seizures have been defined as paroxysmal events different from the EEG background, lasting longer than 10 seconds (or shorter if associated with a clinical change) with temporo-spatial evolution in morphology, frequency, and amplitude, and with a plausible electrographic field (a). Electrographic status epilepticus refers to a single seizure lasting 30 minutes or electrographic seizure activity that when summated occupies more than 50% of a one-hour epoch (d).


References: Abend NS, Arndt DH, Carpenter JL, et al. Electrographic seizures in pediatric ICU patients: Cohort study of risk factors and mortality. Neurology. 2013;81:383–391.


Kaplan PW. The clinical features, diagnosis, and prognosis of nonconvulsive status epilepticus. Neurologist. 2005;11:348–361.


Saengpattrachai M, Sharma R, Hunjan A, et al. Nonconvulsive seizures in the pediatric intensive care unit: Etiology, EEG, and brain imaging findings. Epilepsia. 2006;47:1510–1518.


Chapter 5: Convulsive and Nonconvulsive Status Epilepticus in Critically Ill Children





1.  A 3-year-old female presents with a febrile illness and multiple generalized tonic clonic seizures prior to arrival in the emergency department. While in triage, the patient becomes unresponsive with fixed upward eye deviation. After 5 minutes, rectal diazepam is administered. Which of the following is true regarding the use of benzodiazepines in the treatment of status epilepticus?


      a.   Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor inhibitors


      b.   Prolonged status epilepticus results in the internalization of GABAA receptors, the target of benzodiazepines, at the synapse


      c.   Prolonged status epilepticus results in the accumulation of NMDA receptors, the target of benzodiazepines, at the synapse


      d.   Benzodiazepines are most effective when used synergistically with fosphenytoin




Answer: b.



Benzodiazepines are positive allosteric modulators of the GABAA receptor, not GABAA receptor inhibitors (a). During sustained seizure activity, there is a progressive internalization of GABAA receptors (b) and a progressive increase in the concentration of NMDA receptors in the neuronal membrane (c). In animal models, the longer a seizure lasts, the more refractory to benzodiazepine treatment the animal becomes. In clinical studies, a similar tendency towards progressive resistance to benzodiazepines is seen in the setting of ongoing seizure activity. The use of fosphenytoin has not been shown to impact the efficacy of benzodiazepines (d).


References: Goodkin HP, Yeh JL, Kapur J. Status epilepticus increases the intracellular accumulation of GABAA receptors. J Neurosci. 2005;25:5511–5520.


Jones DM, Esmaeil N, Maren S, et al. Characterization of pharmacoresistance to benzodiazepines in the rat Li-pilocarpine model of status epilepticus. Epilepsy Res. 2002;50:301–312.


Kapur J, Macdonald RL. Rapid seizure-induced reduction of benzodiazepine and Zn2+ sensitivity of hippocampal dentate granule cell GABAA receptors. J Neurosci. 1997;17:7532–7540.


Naylor DE, Liu H, Niquet J, et al. Rapid surface accumulation of NMDA receptors increases glutamatergic excitation during status epilepticus. Neurobiol Dis. 2013;54:225–238.


Naylor DE, Liu H, Wasterlain CG. Trafficking of GABA(A) receptors, loss of inhibition, and a mechanism for pharmacoresistance in status epilepticus. J Neurosci. 2005;25:7724–7733.


Rajasekaran K, Todorovic M, Kapur J. Calcium-permeable AMPA receptors are expressed in a rodent model of status epilepticus. Ann Neurol. 2012;72:91–102.




2.  Which of the following is true regarding the initial treatment of status epilepticus?


      a.   Official guidelines recommend administration of the first three rescue antiseizure medications for status epilepticus within 2 hours of seizure onset.


      b.   Treatment delays have been found in children but not in adults.


      c.   Treatment delays occur outside of the hospital, but once the patient is in the hospital, treatment is administered in a timely and stepwise manner.


      d.   Significant delays exist in the initial treatment of status epilepticus.


      e.   Time to treatment of status epilepticus does not have implications for outcome.




Answer: d.



Although guidelines recommend a timely stepwise administration of medications for status epilepticus every 5 to 10 minutes (a), significant and widespread delays exist (b, c). These delays are independently associated with poorer short-term outcomes (e).


References: Sánchez Fernández I, Gaínza-Lein M, Abend NS, et al. Factors associated with treatment delays in pediatric refractory convulsive status epilepticus. Neurology. 2018;90:e1692–e1701.


Sanchez Fernandez I, Jackson MC, Abend NS, et al. Refractory status epilepticus in children with and without prior epilepsy or status epilepticus. Neurology. 2017;88:386–394.




3.  Animal models of status epilepticus have shown which of the following?


      a.   Nonconvulsive status epilepticus can cause brain damage


      b.   Hypothermia and alkalosis are two of the main types of homeostatic dysregulation that occur during convulsive status epilepticus


      c.   One of the initial compensatory mechanisms during convulsive status epilepticus is to decrease perfusion to the brain to reduce the rate of seizure activity


      d.   Most primate models of convulsive status epilepticus die because of primary brain lesions




Answer: a.



Electrographic-only seizures without accompanying convulsions cause brain damage in animal models. Convulsive status epilepticus is typically associated with hyperthermia and acidosis (b), not hypothermia and alkalosis. At the beginning of status epilepticus, perfusion to the brain and muscles is prioritized to meet metabolic demands (c). The main cause of death in primate models of status epilepticus is homeostatic decompensation, not a primary brain lesion (d).


References: Jones DM, Esmaeil N, Maren S, Macdonald RL. Characterization of pharmacoresistance to benzodiazepines in the rat Li-pilocarpine model of status epilepticus. Epilepsy Res. 2002;50:301–312.


Mazarati AM, Wasterlain CG. N-methyl-D-asparate receptor antagonists abolish the maintenance phase of self-sustaining status epilepticus in rat. Neurosci Lett. 1999;265:187–190.


Rajasekaran K, Todorovic M, Kapur J. Calcium-permeable AMPA receptors are expressed in a rodent model of status epilepticus. Ann Neurol. 2012;72:91–102.




4.  Which of the following is true regarding the current ILAE definition of status epilepticus?


      a.   Only the time when there is likely irreversible brain damage is emphasized in this definition


      b.   Status epilepticus for 30 minutes or more is considered likely to cause irreversible brain damage in all seizure types


      c.   Only the time when seizures are likely to continue if not treated is included


      d.   Both the time when seizures are likely to continue if not treated and the time when there is likely irreversible brain damage are included


      e.   Continuous focal seizures are excluded from the definition of status epilepticus




Answer: d.



The current ILAE definition of status epilepticus defines t1 as the time when seizures are likely to continue if not treated (c) and t2 as the time when there is likely irreversible brain damage (a). For generalized convulsive seizures, t1 is 5 minutes and t2 is 30 minutes. For focal status epilepticus with impairment of consciousness, t1 is 10 minutes and t2 is 60 minutes (b, e). For absence status, t1 is 10 to 15 minutes and t2 is unknown.


Reference: Trinka E, Cock H, Hesdorffer D, et al. A definition and classification of status epilepticus—Report of the ILAE Task Force on Classification of Status Epilepticus. Epilepsia. 2015;56:1515–1523.




5.  Which of the following is true regarding the use of ketamine in the treatment of status epilepticus?


      a.   Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist


      b.   Hypotension and respiratory depression are common side effects of ketamine


      c.   Ketamine is used in cases of status epilepticus secondary to traumatic brain injury due to the tendency to decrease intracranial pressure


      d.   Ketamine is one of the most commonly used medications in the treatment of all forms of convulsive status epilepticus.




Answer: a.



During sustained seizure activity, there is a progressive internalization of GABAA receptors and a progressive increase in the concentration of NMDA receptors at the synapse. Ketamine, a noncompetitive antagonist of the NMDA receptor, may theoretically work better than GABAA agonists once a seizure has become prolonged. As an NMDA antagonist, it may also help minimize excitotoxicity, which results from the downstream effects of calcium influx through NMDA receptors and thereby provide a neuroprotective effect. Ketamine tends to have a better cardiorespiratory profile than midazolam, pentobarbital, and propofol (b). While early work suggested a risk of increased intracranial pressure with ketamine use, this is no longer felt to be a concern (c). Ketamine is used for the treatment of refractory and super-refractory status epilepticus, typically once more commonly used agents like midazolam, pentobarbital, and propofol (in adults) have failed (d).


References: Shorvon S, Ferlisi M. The treatment of super-refractory status epilepticus: A critical review of available therapies and a clinical treatment protocol. Brain. 2011;134:2802–2818.


Vasquez A, Farias-Moeller R, Tatum W. Pediatric refractory and super-refractory status epilepticus. Seizure 2019;68:62–71.


Zeiler FA, Teitelbaum J, West M, et al. The ketamine effect on ICP in traumatic brain injury. Neurocrit Care. 2014;21:163–173.


Questions 6 and 7






6.  A 6-year-old male with medulloblastoma treated with radiation therapy presents with altered mental status. The patient is described as slow to respond to commands. Vital signs are within normal limits for age. MRI is negative for disease progression and CSF analysis is without abnormality. EEG is performed and shown above. Which of the following best describes the EEG and clinical correlate as described here?


      a.   Myoclonic status epilepticus


      b.   Complex partial status epilepticus


      c.   Focal motor status epilepticus


      d.   Convulsive status epilepticus




Answer: 6-b.



The above clinical presentation and EEG findings are consistent with complex partial status epilepticus (6-b).




7.  Which of the following is the next best step in management?


      a.   Lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg


      b.   Midazolam infusion


      c.   Levetiracetam 60 mg/kg bolus


      d.   Evaluate for other causes of altered mental status




Answer: 7-a.



The EEG shows rhythmic discharges over the left posterior quadrant. A trial of lorazepam should be the next step (7-a). This can be followed by a levetiracetam bolus as needed for ongoing seizure activity after treatment with lorazepam (7-c). A midazolam infusion would likely require intubation, an approach too aggressive in a patient who is clinically stable and in whom other treatments of status epilepticus have not yet been tried. The cause of this patient’s mental state has been identified (7-d).


Reference: Wakai S, Ito N, Sueoka H, et al. Complex partial status epilepticus in childhood. Pediatr Neurol. 1995;13:137–141.


Questions 8 to 10






8.  A 15-year-old male presented after cardiac arrest of unclear etiology. He required 30 minutes of CPR before return of spontaneous circulation. CT was performed on arrival and was without acute intracranial abnormality. cEEG was performed to assess for subclinical seizures. The EEG showed bursts of spikes and rhythmic slowing each associated with brief eye opening and upward eye deviation. Which of the following best describes the EEG and clinical correlate as described here?


      a.   Myoclonic status epilepticus


      b.   Complex partial status epilepticus


      c.   Focal motor status epilepticus


      d.   Nonconvulsive status epilepticus


      e.   Convulsive status epilepticus



Answer: 8-a.



The EEG displayed shows a burst-suppression pattern (8-a).




9.  Which of the following is the next best step in management? More than one choice may be used.


      a.   Lorazepam trial


      b.   Midazolam infusion


      c.   Levetiracetam bolus and start maintenance


      d.   Do not treat

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Aug 1, 2021 | Posted by in NEUROLOGY | Comments Off on Questions and Answers by Chapter

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